Benjamin believes that 1/2 % is equivalent to 50%. Is he correct? Why or why not? Please explain.

Mathematics

1 answer:

lina2011 [118]3 years ago

6 0

Answer:

Benjamin is correct.

Step-by-step explanation:

1/2 converted to a decimal (1 divided by 2) is 0.50, which when converted to a percentage is 50%.

1 ÷ 2 = 0.5

.5 × 100 = 50 ⇒ 50%

So, 1/2% = 50%

Also, 1/2 is 50%. So, that should automatically prove that he is correct.

Hope this helps! :)

If so, is Brainliest ok?

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