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MrRa [10]
3 years ago
15

Benjamin believes that 1/2 % is equivalent to 50%. Is he correct? Why or why not? Please explain.

Mathematics
1 answer:
lina2011 [118]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Benjamin is correct.

Step-by-step explanation:

1/2 converted to a decimal (1 divided by 2) is 0.50, which when converted to a percentage is 50%.

1 ÷ 2 = 0.5

.5 × 100 = 50 ⇒ 50%

So, 1/2% = 50%

Also, 1/2 is 50%. So, that should automatically prove that he is correct.

Hope this helps! :)

If so, is Brainliest ok?

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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

Given: A=\frac{1}{2}(b_{1} +b_{2})h

We need to completely isolate b_{1} to solve.

A=\frac{1}{2}(b_{1} +b_{2})h

A=(\frac{1}{2}b_{1} +\frac{1}{2} b_{2})h

A=\frac{1}{2}b_{1} h+\frac{1}{2}b_{2}h

-\frac{1}{2}b_{1}h+A=\frac{1}{2}b_{2}h

-\frac{1}{2}b_{1}h=-A+\frac{1}{2}b_{2}h

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Finally, multiply both sides by -2 to completely isolate b_{1}.

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