Answer: 3/5
Step-by-step explanation: thats your answer.
Answer:
E. Deep venous thrombosis
Step-by-step explanation:
According to a different source, these are the options that come with this question:
A. Depression
B. Smoking history
C. Severe nausea on combined oral contraceptives
D. Lactation history
E. Deep venous thrombosis
This woman would be a good candidate for the progestin-only pill because of her deep venous thrombosis, as contraindications to estrogen include a history of thromboembolic disease. Other contraindications include women who are lactating, women over 35 who smoke or women that have experienced severe nausea when using combined pills.
Answer: d) x+y =40
x=2y -11
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
82
Step-by-step explanation:
shown in the image. hope it helps :)
