1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
Leni [432]
3 years ago
14

Why did the allies agree to "Europe first"?

History
1 answer:
lapo4ka [179]3 years ago
8 0
<span>1/ It is WW II or World War II.
2/ The US agreed that with their immense resources the could wage was on both fronts but that the European front was more important than the Pacific, but did send troops to Australia and New Zealand for training.
3/ That fact is gratefully remembered here in New Zealand and Australia, as most of our troops were in the Middle East. </span>
You might be interested in
From Stettin in the Baltic to Trieste in the Adriatic, an iron curtain has descended across the continent." -
nika2105 [10]

Answer:

The correct answer is A. This statement refers to the beginning of the Cold War.

Explanation:

The Iron Curtain was a term used for ideological and often material borders that divided Europe in two parts from the end of World War II in 1945 to about 1991. The term became known after Winston Churchill used it in the "Iron Curtain Speech" on March 5, 1946.

The Iron Curtain divided Europe into "Eastern Europe", which was formed by the Soviet Union and other Warsaw Pact countries, and "Western Europe" which was formed by the European countries that were NATO members. The term "Central Europe" almost disappeared from the debate at the same time. It was one of the first divisions that appeared in the world as a result of the Cold War.

4 0
3 years ago
What were causes of sectionalism?
scZoUnD [109]
The 1860 presidential election
states’ rights
3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
PLS HELP BRAINLIEST!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!! PLS!!!!
BabaBlast [244]

Answer:

I believe its A: because they made it easier for immigrants to vote

Explanation:

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
What was the purpose of the roosevelt corollary ?
My name is Ann [436]

Answer:

D. to discourage European nations from colonizing Latin america

Explanation:

Roosevelt's Corollary (Conclusion) to the Monroe Doctrine: The US will intervene in conflicts between European and Latin American countries, will not allow Europeans to do so directly.

 Roosevelt, who is regarded as a classic imperialist among American presidents, gave more weight to the pursuit of interest than to his commitment to the mission. Symptomatic of this view is its corollary, with the Monroe Doctrine of 1904, which threatens intervention where political movements threaten the obligation to repay debt to the United States, because they, as an "international rebel force," have an obligation to "prevent" any delinquent behavior ”. At the same time, Roosevelt pursued a policy of equilibrium in the Pacific, which aimed to give the American aspiration for dominance adequate prominence.

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The Japanese adopted the idea of ___________ from Otto von Bismarck's German Empire.
ASHA 777 [7]

The Japanese adopted the idea of<u> "Realpolitik" </u>from Otto von Bismarck's German Empire.


Realpolitik is the possibility that you do what attempts to achieve your objective, disregarding any morals or standards that could act as a burden. Bismarck, who needed to join Germany, was eager to do whatever was fundamental.  

In 1862, when Bismarck wound up head administrator of the Kingdom of Prussia, Germany comprised of in excess of two dozen states. Prior endeavors to join them with offers to well known standards, for example, majority rules system, had fizzled. Bismarck said he would frame a domain out of mechanical power and the armed force, or as he put it, by 'iron and blood.' His 'real politics' comprised of utilizing wars to speak to patriotism, while vanquishing any German expresses that contradicted Prussia. He attacked Denmark, and after that turned on his partner Austria, finishing the nation's impact in Germany. At that point in 1870, he deceived France into a noteworthy war, and beat them. In the fervor of triumph, the German states joined in a realm under the King of Prussia. The way that about a quarter million individuals passed on was only an awful symptom of achieving this objective.

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Other questions:
  • The New England colonies did not rely on agriculture because
    8·1 answer
  • the nomadic hunter-gatherer lifestyle helped support the needs of the growing society in the Fertile Crescent
    8·1 answer
  • List the following events in the order in which they happened.
    6·1 answer
  • Who do historians believe were responsible for the fire
    7·1 answer
  • What statement best describes Japan's trading policies with Europe?
    7·1 answer
  • What was the cause of the war between the French and the British in 1754​
    15·1 answer
  • The Scopes trial, the increase in the size of the KKK and prohibition showed that the liberal values of the "Roaring Twenties" w
    12·2 answers
  • What was Coronado looking for?
    14·1 answer
  • The “spoils” of the spoils system, which was established in the late 1820s, were
    9·2 answers
  • What was the house vote for employer participation in repayment act?
    15·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!