The answer that you said is right. I totally agree with you.
Answer:
Option C is right
C. They are independent because, based on the probability, the first ace was replaced before drawing the second ace.
Step-by-step explanation:
Given that the probability of drawing two aces from a standard deck is 0.0059
If first card is drawn and replaced then this probability would change. By making draws with replacement we make each event independent of the other
Drawing ace in I draw has probability equal to 4/52, when we replace the I card again drawing age has probability equal to same 4/52
So if the two draws are defined as event A and event B, the events are independent
C. They are independent because, based on the probability, the first ace was replaced before drawing the second ace.
We are told that f(1) = -1.5, and that f(n+1) = -2f(n).
Then: f(2) = -2f(1) = -2(-1.5) = +3 (answer)
Answer:
2.89 percent chance
Step-by-step explanation:
so first if you divide 9200 and 47 you get a total of 195.74 .now if you combine the weight of each passenger and crew memeber and their luggage it has a mean of 200.4 pounds with a standard deviation of 69.3 pounds so their is a 2.89 percent chance im sure if not shoe me the nswers and i will give you th correct answer
Hi there! The answer would be:
y=-2/5x+2.
Explanation:
We can start by plotting the given point (-5,3). From there, we can use the slope to place other points to find the y intercept. Using the slope of the graph, we can find that the line segment hits (2,0). Therefore, how answer would be: y=-2/5x+2
Hope this helps!!! :DD
mark brainliest if possible! If not, that’s okay!
