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swat32
3 years ago
15

Use the Binomial Theorem to find the indicated coefficient or term.

Mathematics
1 answer:
Dmitriy789 [7]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

ans: coefficient of 3rd term is 60

3rd term is 60x

Step-by-step explanation:

(5x +2)³ = C(3,2) × (5x)^(3-2) × 2²

= 3 × 5 × 4 × x

= 60x

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Somebody help me solve;
Nadya [2.5K]
P(at least 5 rolls until 1) = P(4 rolls are not 1) = 5/6 x 5/6 x 5/6 x 5/6 = 0.4823 (4sf)

Fewer than 7 rolls to get second 1 after first takes 3 rolls means second occurs on 4th, 5th or 6th roll
The probability of each of these is 1/6, 5/6 x 1/6 and 5/6 x 5/6 x 1/6 respectively.
P(second 1 on 4th, 5th or 6th roll) = 1/6 + 5/36 + 25/216 = 91/216 = 0.4213 (4sf)
3 0
2 years ago
Find the area of a circle whose circumference is the same as the perimeter of a square of side 22 cm. (Take π = 22/7)
Nadya [2.5K]

Answer:

Perimeter of a square=circumference of circle

4×22=2πr

44=πr

r=14

Area of circle=πr2

22/7×14×14

28×22

616

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
What's the error? Jerry says that a cube with edges that measure 10 cm has a volume that is twice as much as a cube with sides t
disa [49]
The quick way to dispute something like this is to simply do the calculation and then create a ratio. 

Cube One (Large Cube)
The formula for a cube is V = e^3 
e = the measurement of an edge. In this case.
e = 10 cm
V = e^3
V = 10^3 = 10*10*10
V = 1000 cm^3

Cube 2 (Small Cube)
V = e^3
e = 5 cm
V = 5*5*5
V = 125 cm^3

Ratio
Large Cube / Small Cube = 1000 / 125 = 8/1.

The difference in size is 8 to 1 not 2 to 1.

Explanation
He's right if he sticks to one side. The ratio of one side of the large cube to the small one is 2 to 1. But once you put that into the formula for volume, three sides are multiplied together and that 2 shows up everytime you multiply the sides together. 

4 0
4 years ago
A number is increased by 30, and the
Novosadov [1.4K]

Answer:

The original number is 17.

Step-by-step explanation:

3(x+30)=141\\\\\frac{3(x+30)}{3}=\frac{141}{3}\\\\x+30=47\\\\x+30-30=47-30\\\\x=17

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
1-cot^2a+cot^4a=sin^2a(1+cot^6a) prove it.​
aliina [53]

Step-by-step explanation:

We have

1-cot²a + cot⁴a = sin²a(1+cot⁶a)

First, we can take a look at the right side. It expands to sin²a + cot⁶(a)sin²(a) = sin²a + cos⁶a/sin⁴a (this is the expanded right side) as cot(a) = cos(a)/sin(a), so cos⁶a = cos⁶a/sin⁶a. Therefore, it might be helpful to put everything in terms of sine and cosine to solve this.

We know 1 = sin²a+cos²a and cot(a) = cos(a)/sin(a), so we have

1-cot²a + cot⁴a = sin²a+cos²a-cos²a/sin²a + cos⁴a/sin⁴a

Next, we know that in the expanded right side, we have sin²a + something. We can use that to isolate the sin²a. The rest of the expanded right side has a denominator of sin⁴a, so we can make everything else have that denominator.

sin²a+cos²a-cos²a/sin²a + cos⁴a/sin⁴a

= sin²a + (cos²(a)sin⁴(a) - cos²(a)sin²(a) + cos⁴a)/sin⁴a

We can then factor cos²a out of the numerator

sin²a + (cos²(a)sin⁴(a) - cos²(a)sin²(a) + cos⁴a)/sin⁴a

= sin²a + cos²a (sin⁴a-sin²a+cos²a)/sin⁴a

Then, in the expanded right side, we can notice that the fraction has a numerator with only cos in it. We can therefore write sin⁴a in terms of cos (we don't want to write the sin²a term in terms of cos because it can easily add with cos²a to become 1, so we can hold that off for later) , so

sin²a = (1-cos²a)

sin⁴a = (1-cos²a)² = cos⁴a - 2cos²a + 1

sin²a + cos²a (sin⁴a-sin²a+cos²a)/sin⁴a

= sin²a + cos²a (cos⁴a-2cos²a+1-sin²a+cos²a)/sin⁴a

= sin²a + cos²a (cos⁴a-cos²a+1-sin²a)/sin⁴a

factor our the -cos²a-sin²a as -1(cos²a+sin²a) = -1(1) = -1

sin²a + cos²a (cos⁴a-cos²a+1-sin²a)/sin⁴a

=  sin²a + cos²a (cos⁴a-1 + 1)/sin⁴a

= sin²a + cos⁶a/sin⁴a

= sin²a(1+cos⁶a/sin⁶a)

= sin²a(1+cot⁶a)

8 0
3 years ago
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