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galina1969 [7]
3 years ago
8

He commenced business with Rs 60000 cash and goods worth Rs 20000 .(Journal entries) ​

Business
1 answer:
vitfil [10]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

extra Rs 40000 remaining after subtracting 20000 from

60000,the reminder is 40000.

plus what's the question i just guessed the question,cause the was no visible Q!

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Which financial activity helps a company based in another country
Lady_Fox [76]

Answer:

The correct answer is A

Explanation:

The financial activity is that activity which is undertaken by companies in order to accomplish their economic objectives and goals.

FDI (Foreign direct investment), which is an investment that is controlling the ownership or possession of the business in one country by an entity in another country.

Therefore, the FDI is the one activity which will help the company based in another country.

5 0
3 years ago
Cash Payback Period, Net Present Value Analysis, and Qualitative Considerations The plant manager of Shenzhen Electronics Compan
Kay [80]

Answer:

NPV = $750,598.49

Explanation:

Payback calculates the amount of time it takes to recover the amount invested in a project from it cumulative cash flows

Payback period =  amount invested / cash flow = $1,400,000 / $350,000 = 4 years

Net present value is the present value of after tax cash flows from an investment less the amount invested.  

NPV can be calculated using a financial calculator  

Cash flow in year 0 =  $-1,400,000.

Cash flow each year from year 1 to 10 =  $350,000.

I = 10%

NPV = $750,598.49

To find the NPV using a financial calculator:

1. Input the cash flow values by pressing the CF button. After inputting the value, press enter and the arrow facing a downward direction.

2. after inputting all the cash flows, press the NPV button, input the value for I, press enter and the arrow facing a downward direction.  

3. Press compute  

5 0
3 years ago
Cooley Landscaping Company needs to borrow ​$21 comma 000for a new​ front-end dirt loader. The bank is willing to loan the funds
kaheart [24]

Answer:

$ 4242.76

Explanation:

Annual payment = rP / (1 - ( 1 + r)^-n)

r = rate = 9.5%

P = the amount borrowed = $ 21000

n = number of years

Annual payment = 0.095 ($ 21 000) / ( 1 - (1 + 0.095)⁻⁷ ) =  $ 4242.76

8 0
3 years ago
Using the tables above, if an investment is made now for $20,000 that will generate a cash inflow of $8,000 a year for the next
Allushta [10]

Answer:

b. $5,360

Explanation:

Using a financial calculator with CF function, find the Net present value (NPV) of this projects cashflows;

Initial investment; CF0 = -20,000

Yr 1 cash inflow; C01 = 8,000

Yr 2 cash inflow; C02 = 8,000

Yr 3 cash inflow; C03 = 8,000

Yr 4 cash inflow; C04 = 8,000

and annual interest rate; I/Y = 10%

then compute net present value; CPT NPV = 5,358.924

Therefore, the NPV will be closest to $5,360

8 0
3 years ago
Find the future values of these ordinary annuities. Compounding occurs once a year. Do not round intermediate calculations. Roun
Dimas [21]

Answer:

a. Futuere Value = $19,245.86

b. Futuere Value = $3,060.86

c. Futuere Value = $0

d-1. Futuere Value = $21,170.44

d-2. Futuere Value = $3,213.90

d-3. Futuere Value = $0

Explanation:

Note: The data in the question are merged. They are therefore sorted before answering the question as follows:

Find the future values of these ordinary annuities. Compounding occurs once a year. Do not round intermediate calculations. Round your answers to the nearest cent.

a. $900 per year for 12 years at 10%. $ 19,245.85

b. $450 per year for 6 years at 5%. $ 3,060.86

c. $200 per year for 6 years at 0%. $

d. Rework parts a, b, and c assuming they are annuities due.

Future value of $900 per year for 12 years at 10%: $ 21,170.43

Future value of $450 per year for 6 years at 5%: $ 3,213.90

Future value of $200 per year for 6 years at 0%: $

Explanation of the answer is now provided as follows:

The formula for calculating the Future Value (FV) of an Ordinary Annuity given as follows:

FV = M * (((1 + r)^n - 1) / r) ................................. (1)

Where,

FV = Future value of the amount =?

M = Annuity payment

r = Annual interest rate

n = number of periods years

This formula is now applied as follows:

a. $900 per year for 12 years at 10%. $ 19,245.85

Therefore, we have:

FV = ?

M = $900

r = 10%, or 0.10

n = 12

Substituting the values into equation (1), we have:

FV = $900 * (((1 + 0.10)^12 - 1) / 0.10)

FV = $900 * 21.38428376721

FV = $19,245.855390489

Rounding the nearest cent, we have:

FV = 19,245.86

b. $450 per year for 6 years at 5%. $ 3,060.86

Therefore, we have:

FV = ?

M = $450

r = 5%, or 0.05

n = 6

Substituting the values into equation (1), we have:

FV = $450 * (((1 + 0.05)^6 - 1) / 0.05)

FV = $450 * 6.8019128125

FV = $3,060.860765625

Rounding the nearest cent, we have:

FV = $3,060.86

c. $200 per year for 6 years at 0%. $

Therefore, we have:

FV = ?

M = $200

r = 0%, or 0

n = 6

Substituting the values into equation (1), we have:

FV = $200 * (((1 + 0)^6 - 1) / 0)

FV = $200 * ((1^6 - 1) / 0)

FV = $200 * ((1 - 1) / 0)

FV = $200 * (0 / 0)

FV = $200 * 0

FV = $0

d. Rework parts a, b, and c assuming they are annuities due.

The formula for calculating the Future Value (FV) of an Annuity Due is given as follows:

FV = M * (((1 + r)^n - 1) / r) * (1 + r) ................................. (2)

Where,

FV = Future value

M = Annuity payment

r = Annual interest rate

n = number of periods years

This formula is now applied as follows:

d-1. Future value of $900 per year for 12 years at 10%: $ 21,170.43

Therefore, we have:

FV = ?

M = $900

r = 10%, or 0.10

n = 12

Substituting the values into equation (2), we have:

FV = $900 * (((1 + 0.10)^12 - 1) / 0.10) * (1 + 0.10)

FV = $900 * 21.38428376721 * 1.10

FV = $2,1170.4409295379

Rounding the nearest cent, we have:

FV = $2,1170.44

d-2. Future value of $450 per year for 6 years at 5%: $ 3,213.90

Therefore, we have:

FV = ?

M = $450

r = 5%, or 0.05

n = 6

Substituting the values into equation (2), we have:

FV = $450 * (((1 + 0.05)^6 - 1) / 0.05) * (1 + 0.05)

FV = $450 * 6.8019128125 * 1.05

FV = $3,213.90380390625

Rounding the nearest cent, we have:

FV = $3,213.90

d-3. Future value of $200 per year for 6 years at 0%: $

Therefore, we have:

FV = ?

M = $200

r = 0%, or 0

n = 6

Substituting the values into equation (2), we have:

FV = $200 * (((1 + 0)^6 - 1) / 0) * (1 + 0)

FV = $200 * ((1^6 - 1) / 0) * 1

FV = $200 * ((1 - 1) / 0) * 1

FV = $200 * (0 / 0) * 1

FV = $200 * 0 * 1

FV = $0

8 0
3 years ago
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