All categories

3 years ago

Does the U.S. have a trade deficit or surplus?

Business

1 answer:

ZanzabumX [31]3 years ago

3 0

Answer:

surplus

Explanation:Don't quote me on this because I might be wrong, but I think the united states has a trade surplus because of the dependence on U.S trade globally. China has a trade surplus because they have some the biggest and busiest factories and shipping outposts. Since the U.S has such a high trade level with the trade Surplus of china the U.S is also a trade surplus.

You might be interested in

Which of the following is used to calculate total variable overhead variance where VOH = Variable Overhead, SVOR = Standard Vari

jenyasd209 [6]

Answer:

See below.

Explanation:

Total Variable over head variance = Spending variance + Efficiency variance

Total Spending variance = VOH - SVOR × AH

Total Efficiency variance = SVOR * ( AH - SH)

Assuming we only want total spending variance then option A is correct, however if we assume total overhead variance is required option E would be correct as we also need to account for the efficiency variance of overhead as per the difference between actual and standard hours worked.

Hope that helps.

6 0

4 years ago

A total of $42,000 is invested in two municipal bonds that pay 4.25% and 7.75% simple interest. The investor wants an annual int

mart [117]

Answer:

$14,000 should be invested in the 4.25% bond.

Explanation:

Let's assume

Investment in bond with a coupon rate of 4.25% = x

Investment in bond with a coupon rate of 7.75% = y

According to given condition

x + y = $42,000 (i)

4.25%x + 7.75%y = $2,765

0.0425x + 0.0775y = $2,765 (ii)

Multiplying the equiation (i) by 0.0425

0.0425x + 0.0425y = $1,785 (iii)

Subtracting equation (iii) from equation (ii)

0.0425x + 0.0775y = $2,765

0 + 0.0350y = $980

0.0350y = $980

y = $980 / 0.0350

y = $28,000

Placing valye of y in equiation (i)

x + $28,000 = $42,000

x = $42,000 - $28,000

x = $14,000

Hence

Investment in bond with a coupon rate of 4.25% = x = $14,000

6 0

3 years ago

Prior to closing, a final walkthrough of the property should be performed to ensure that everything has remained as stated in th

vitfil [10]

Prior to closing, a final walk through of the property should be performed to ensure that everything has remained as stated in the sales contract. The walk through is generally completed by the: buyer

<h3><u>Explanation:</u></h3>

In real estate field final walk through refers to the inspection that is carried out finally before signing the documents. The local purchase and sales contract determines the time period at which the final walk through must be taken place. It helps the buyer to ensure the conditions to the property before signing the legal documents.

A final walk through helps a buyer to inspect whether all the things that are stated in the sales contract are fulfilled by the seller. Hence, it must be completed only by the buyer. If the seller has mentioned some modifications or repairs to be done then it should also be completed as per the stated requirements of the buyer.

3 0

4 years ago

What are you primarily doing when you reconcile your checking account?

wlad13 [49]

I believe the answer is: B. Making sure that your records match your bank’s records.

During this process, it is very common to see some difference between your records and the bank's. This could be caused by occurrence such as outstanding check, mistakes during recording, insufficient funds, etc. In order to fix this, you need to make an adjustment to find out why the difference occurs.

7 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

A(n) _______ is an arrangement in which a third party promises to be secondarily liable for the payment of another's debt.

Gre4nikov [31]

A. guaranty arrangement
The third party is providing a guarantee that the lender will recover the debt regardless of the borrower's reputation to pay.

3 0

3 years ago