Answer:
Me
Step-by-step explanation:
Because I am lonely
1) slope-2/3, y-intercept-(0,6)
2) slope- -2/3, y-intercept-(0,-3)
3) slope- 8, y-intercept-(0,-6)
4) slope- 6, y-intercept-(0,-8)
Answer:
The integral is equal to
for an arbitrary constant C.
Step-by-step explanation:
a) If
then
so the integral becomes
. (the constant of integration is actually 5C, but this doesn't affect the result when taking derivatives, so we still denote it by C)
b) In this case
hence
. We rewrite the integral as
.
c) We use the trigonometric identity
is part b). The value of the integral is
. which coincides with part a)
Note that we just replaced 5+C by C. This is because we are asked for an indefinite integral. Each value of C defines a unique antiderivative, but we are not interested in specific values of C as this integral is the family of all antiderivatives. Part a) and b) don't coincide for specific values of C (they would if we were working with a definite integral), but they do represent the same family of functions.
81-1= 80
80 / 2 = 40
D = 40
So:
40(2) = 81 - 1
Step-by-step explanation:
A=2πr(r+h)
A=6.28×14mm(+29mm)
A=77.92(14mm+29mm)
A=77.92×43
A=3350.56 mm
Hope it helps
KC