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8090 [49]
3 years ago
6

Please help me. I will fail...I will mark you brainiest.

Mathematics
1 answer:
telo118 [61]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

1) 17.6    2) 1760%     3) 12.6

Step-by-step explanation:

give me brainlist

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A well-mixed cookie dough will produce cookies with a mean of 6 chocolate chips apiece. What is the probability of getting a coo
posledela

The probability of getting a cookie with no more than 3 chips is 0.714.

<h3>What is probability?</h3>

It is defined as the ratio of the number of favorable outcomes to the total number of outcomes, in other words, the probability is the number that shows the happening of the event.

We have:

Well-mixed cookie dough will produce cookies with a mean of 6 chocolate chips apiece.

Using poison ratio:

\rm P (X = k) = \dfrac{\lambda^k e^{-\lambda}}{k!}

λ is the mean number of chocolate chips in a piece

\rm P (X = 6) = \dfrac{6^k e^{-6}}{k!}

P(X ≥ 5) = 1 - P(X < 5)

P(X ≥ 5) = 1 - P(X = 0) + P(X = 1)  + P(X = 2)  + P(X = 3) + P(X = 4)  

\rm P(X \geq  5)  =  1-[\dfrac{6^0 e^{-6}}{0!}+\dfrac{6^1 e^{-6}}{1!}+\dfrac{6^2 e^{-6}}{2!}+\dfrac{6^3 e^{-6}}{3!}+\dfrac{6^4 e^{-6}}{4!}]

After solving;

P(X ≥ 5) = 0.714

Thus, the probability of getting a cookie with no more than 3 chips is 0.714.

Learn more about the probability here:

brainly.com/question/11234923

#SPJ1

6 0
2 years ago
Rewrite 1/3 book - 5/6 hour as a unit rate.
insens350 [35]

Answer:

2/5

Step-by-step explanation:

The answer is 2/5 as a fraction or 0.40 as a decimal. To get the answer all you have to do is 1/3÷5/6

6 0
3 years ago
Question 4 of 10
soldi70 [24.7K]

Answer:

d. y=5x-3

Slope-intercept form is y=mx+b.

m= slope

b= y intercept

so, m=5 and b= -3

Substitute with those values and then you have the equation.

3 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Somebody who knows how to do this?? plz answer all the questions correctly thanks!
Ksju [112]

Answer:

a) 5/21

b) 4/21

c) 4/21

d) 8/21

Step-by-step explanation:

total number of coins: 21

a) number if dollars: 5

therefore fraction is 5/21

b) number of quarters: 4

therefore fraction is 4/21

c) number of dimes: 4

therefore fraction is 4/21

d) number of nickels: 8

therefore fraction is 8/21

4 0
3 years ago
Can anyone help me with my homework
DIA [1.3K]
GFBH is the code

1 is -3,-2 which is G
2 is 3,4 which is F
3 is 2,0 which is B
4 is 1,-3 which is H
5 0
3 years ago
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