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Alekssandra [29.7K]
3 years ago
6

A firm produces and sells two products, Plus and Max. The following information is available relating to setup costs (a part of

factory overhead):
Plus Max
Units produced 200 16,000
Batch size (units) 10 400
Number of setups 20 40
Direct labor hours per unit 5 5
Total direct labor hours 1,000 80,000
Cost per setup $1,080
Total setup cost $64,800
1. With traditional two-stage allocation of overhead costs, using direct labor hours as the allocation base, the setup cost portion of overhead that is allocated to each unit of product for Plus and Max, respectively is __________?
Business
1 answer:
Reika [66]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

$4 and $4

Explanation:

The computation are shown below:

Per hour cost = Total set up cost ÷ Total direct labor hours

                          = $64,800 ÷ $81,000

                          = $0.8

Now the set up cost would be

= Per hour cost × Direct labor hours per unit

For Plus

= 5 × $0.8

= $4

For Max

= 5 × $0.8

= $4

All other given information is not important. Hence, ignored it

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Sketches Inc. purchased a machine on January 1, 2016. The cost of the machine was $29,000. Its estimated residual value was $9,0
ivolga24 [154]

Answer:

Annual depreciation= $4,000

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

The cost of the machine was $29,000. Its estimated residual value was $9,000 at the end of estimated 5-year life.

<u>To calculate the depreciation expense, we need to use the following formula:</u>

Annual depreciation= (original cost - salvage value)/estimated life (years)

Annual depreciation= (29,000 - 9,000)/5

Annual depreciation= $4,000

8 0
3 years ago
A firm is planning on paying its first dividend of $2 three years from today. After that, dividends are expected to grow at 6% p
BabaBlast [244]

Answer:

The intrinsic value of a share today is $16.87

Explanation:

Intrinsic Value of the share is calculated as below.

Dividend Valuation method is used to value the stock price of a company based on the dividend paid, its growth rate and rate of return. The price is calculated by calculating present value of future dividend payment.

Value of Share = Dividend / (Rate of return - Growth rate)

placing values in the formula

Value of share = $2 / (14% - 6%) = $25

$25 is the value of share after 3 year, to calculate today's value we have to discount it as below

Today's value of share = $25 x ( 1 + 14% )^-3 = $16.87

7 0
3 years ago
In a Cobb–Douglas production function the marginal product of labor will increase if:
KengaRu [80]

Answer:

Option "B" is the correct answer to the following statement.

Explanation:

The rise in the labor workforce would raise the productive output of capital in a specific Cobb – Douglas output method, and it will raise the actual rental price of resources.

The gross amount of capital would also rise in the output of Cobb-Douglas if the volume of labor grows.

Under this function, human capital will help in the production of the product, human capital and marginal production are directly proportionate to each other.

3 0
3 years ago
Kia, a top-level manager in a software firm, is allocating the company's resources to meet the organization's long-term goals. S
lana66690 [7]

Answer:

C. Strategic plan

Explanation:

Strategic planning involves developing a business strategy, method of implementing the business strategy and finally evaluating the business strategy in order to see if it has achieve its goal. It is characterized by strategy formulation, implementation and evaluation. In this case, Kia is contributing to the strategic plan by allocating company's resources to meet the long term goals of the company and defining long term activities, that is, developing a business strategy.

3 0
3 years ago
Exercise 5-66 Bad Debt Expense: Percentage of Credit Sales Method Gilmore Electronics had the following data for a recent year:
Stels [109]

Answer:  Debit Bad debt expense $11,264, Credit Allowance for bad debt $11,264; Debit Allowance for bad debt $9,650, Credit Accounts receivable $9,650.

Explanation: Percentage of credit sales method means bad debt expense expressed as a percentage of sales.

The estimated bad debts rate is 2.2%, which translates to 2.2% of $512,000 (credit sales) = $11,264. The firm has to record this, being the estimated bad debts rate, as Debit to bad debt expense and Credit to allowance for bad debt. However, accounts receivable that was deemed uncollectible is $9,650. This amount would be taken out from the buffer in allowance account by debiting allowance for bad debt and crediting accounts receivable.

5 0
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