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MrRa [10]
2 years ago
6

On April 1, 2015, the City of Southern Ponds issued $3,500,000 in 4% general obligation, tax supported bonds at 101 for the purp

ose of constructing a new police station. The premium was transferred to a debt service fund. A total of $3,490,000 was used to construct the police station, which was completed before December 31, 2015, the end of the fiscal year. The
remaining funds were transferred to the debt service fund. The bonds were dated April 1, 2015, and paid interest on October 1 and April 1. The first of 20 equal annual principal payments of $175,000 is due April 1, 2016.
What amount would be reported as debt service expenditures for 2015?
A) $ -0-
B) $ 70,000.
C) $140,000.
D) $245,000.
Business
1 answer:
LUCKY_DIMON [66]2 years ago
3 0

Answer:

B) $ 70,000.

Explanation:

Debt service expense

Debt service expense is the interest expense incurred to avail the debt services from another entity.

Debt service expense can be calculated using the following formula

Debt service expense = Face value of Bonds x Interest rate x Semiannual fraction

Where

Face value of bonds = $3,500,000

Interest rate  = 4%

Semiannual fraction = 6 / 12 = 1/ 2

placing values in the formula

Debt service expense = $3,500,000 x 4% x 1/2

Debt service expense = $70,000

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It has been a great year at Capital Funding, Inc., an SEC-registered broker-dealer that is also registered in 22 states. The com
sergey [27]

Answer:

Option D would be the appropriate alternative.

Explanation:

  • A broker dealer would be a company or organization engaged throughout the purchase as well as the sale of securities within its multiple occasions or even on behalf of the participants.
  • Brokerage serves as an intermediary whenever it implements order information on behalf of the shareholders while acting mostly as a dealer or superintendent whenever it exchanges on one's consideration.

Other choices available aren't connected to that same scenario in the statement. So the answer here is just the perfect one.

3 0
2 years ago
Gipple Corporation makes a product that uses a material with the quantity standard of 7.3 grams per unit of output and the price
noname [10]

Answer:

C) $300 U

Explanation:

Gipple Corporation

Material Quantity Variance = (Actual Quantity Used * Standard Unit Cost )-

( Standard Quantity Used * Standard Unit Cost )

Material Quantity Variance =(AQ* SP) -(SQ*SP)

Material Quantity Variance = (24,870* 6)- ( 7.3* 3400 *6)

Material Quantity Variance = (24,870* 6)- (24,820* 6)

Material Quantity Variance = 149220 - 148920

Material Quantity Variance = $300 Unfavorable

As actual quantity is greater than standard quantity it is unfavorable.

4 0
2 years ago
11. If you want to have a return for your Final Portfolio (that is invested between Optimal Risky portfolio and Risk Free Securi
melamori03 [73]

Answer:

Answer is explained in the explanation section.

Explanation:

Note: First of all, this question is incomplete and lacks necessary data to calculate this question. However, I have found the similar question on the internet with complete data given. Additionally, I have shared that data as well in the attachment below for your convenience, Thanks.

Solution:

SD = Standard Deviation

Using utility function, E(R) = Rp - 0.005 x A x SD^{2} = 1.34 - 0.005 x 3x 4.06^{2}

Using utility function, E(R) = 1.093%

If the weight in the risky portfolio is let's say, "a" then,

weight in the risk-free asset = 1 - a

So,

E(R) = a x Rp + (1 - a) x Rf

1.093% = a x 1.34% + (1 - a) x 0.50%

Solving for "a"

a = 70.56% - weight in risky portfolio

and 1 - a = 29.44% - weight in risk-free asset.

Similarly, if you want a return of 1.10%,

we can follow the above steps and get

1.1% = a x 1.34% + (1 - a) x 0.5%

Weight in risky portfolio,

a = 71.43%

weight in risk-free asset,

1 - a = 28.57%

5 0
2 years ago
Problem 5-35 Comparing Cash Flow Streams [LO 1] You’ve just joined the investment banking firm of Dewey, Cheatum, and Howe. They
Minchanka [31]

Answer:

PV of 1st option = $185,015.50

PV of 2nd option = $192,683.78

Explanation:

Computing the present value of the monthly payments, we use the formula PV = \frac{A(1-(1+r)^{-n}) }{r}

Where PV = present value of the monthly payments

A = monthly salary

r = monthly interest rate = 6%/12 = 0.5% = 0.005

n = number of months = 24 months

PV of the 1st option, $8,200 monthly for the next 2 year

PV = \frac{8,200(1-(1.005)^{-24}) }{0.005} = $185,015.50.

PV of the 2ns option, $6,900 monthly + $37,000 signing bonus

PV = \frac{6,900(1-(1.005)^{-24}) }{0.005}+37,000 = $155,683.78 + $37,000 = $192,683.78.

7 0
3 years ago
A Registered Representative sold a deferred variable annuity to an unmarried 18 year old high school senior who had just inherit
vova2212 [387]

Answer:

c)

Explanation:

The costumer has no spouse or dependents.  This negates the value of the death benefit.  The founds has no liquid due to the surrender fees, and there is also 10% penalty on withdrawals before age 59.5

3 0
3 years ago
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