Break it down into two parts. First, what is the probability of drawing a blue marble on the first draw?Since there are 5 blue marbles and 10 total, the probability is 5⁄10, or 1/2. Now since we no longer have that blue marble, there are 4 blue marbles and 9 total. The chances of drawing a blue marble are 4/9. Therefore, the chance that both marbles drawn are blue is the chance that the first one is blue times the chance that the second one is blue. 1/2 * 4/9 = 4/18 = 2/9 Remember, math is always trying to trick you. It wants you to try and do the whole big problem at once, which can be difficult. Break it down into smaller problems, then use your answers to small parts to find the answer to the big question. Hope that helps,
I don't think it can be reduced anymore.
Hi There!
Answer: Bowler 2
Why: if you notice that line in the box plot shows the median and it specifically shows that the meadian is 20 or so greater than Bowler 1.
Answer:
1/4=0.25=25%
Step-by-step explanation:
A coin has two sides, heads and tails, and if you take 100% divided by two you get 50, you want to know what is the probability it will land on tails TWICE so divide 50 by two and you get 25.
1/2=50
1/4=25
0.25 x 100= 25%
hope that helps
Answer:
the second cda is right give brainliest pls
Step-by-step explanation:
