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3 years ago

8

What generalization can you deduce about the relationship between the area of the squares on each of the sides of a right triang

le?

1 answer:

prohojiy [21]3 years ago

6 0

Answer:

Phitagors theory

Step-by-step explanation:

a^2=b^2=c^2

You might be interested in

Angle e measures 126LaTeX: ^\circ∘. What is the measure of LaTeX: \angle∠h?

Oksana_A [137]

Option C: 126° is the correct answer

Step-by-step explanation:

When two lines intersect, the four angles are formed. The angles vertically opposite with same vertex are called vertical opposite angles.

The opposite vertical angles are equal.

In the given figure, the pairs of vertically opposite angles are e,h and f,g.

Given

∠e = 126°

The measurement of e and h will be equal as they are vertically opposite

So,

m∠e = m∠h

m∠h = 126°

Hence,

Option C: 126° is the correct answer

Keywords: Vertical angles, lines

Learn more about angles at:

#LearnwithBrainly

6 0

3 years ago

Which polygon is a convex heptagon

Darya [45]

Convex Heptagon: A convex heptagon is a polygon with seven sides in which all of its diagonals lies inside the Heptagon. Concave Heptagon: A Concave Heptagon is a polygon with one or more interior angles greater than 180 degrees and some diagonals will lie outside the polygon.

8 0

3 years ago

What is the measure of arc HT?

Korolek [52]

Answer:

step 1. mHT = 2(74) = 148°. the arc measures twice the angle when crossing the circle.

7 0

3 years ago

Need help!!!! PLZ I don't know

Greeley [361]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

First factor the polynomials and reduce the fractions.

6 0

3 years ago

A project has a forecasted cash flow of $110 in year 1 and $121 in year 2. Risk free rate is 5%, the estimated risk premium on t

Crazy boy [7]

From the question we are told that:

$Cash Flow:$

Year 1= \$110

Year 2 = \$121

Risk free rate is $r=5%$

Risk premium $R=10\%$

$\beta = 0.7.$

a)

Generally, the equation for Equity Return is mathematically given by

$e=r+\beta*R$

$e=0.05+(0.7*0.10)$

$e=0.12$

Therefore Present Value (PV) is

$PV=\frac{110}{1+0.12}+\frac{121}{1+0.12^2}$

b)

Generally, the equation for certainty-equivalent cash flow is mathematically given by

$CE=(1+r)\frac{Year}{1+e}$

Therefore

For Certainty-equivalent cash flow Year One

$CE__=(1+0.05)\frac{110}{1+0.12}$

$CE_1=103.125$

For Certainty-equivalent cash flow Year Two

$CE_2=(1+0.05)\frac{121}{1+0.12}$

$CE_2=113.4$

c)

The Ratio of the certainty-equivalent cash flows to the expected cash flows in years 1 and 2 could be written as

$R=103.125:113.4$

or

$R=\frac{103.125}{113.4}$

7 0

3 years ago