Answer:
Adjusted cash balance : $25850
Explanation:
The goal of a reconciliation statement is to ascertain the differences between the banks records and the depositor’s records and make accounting changes as deemed appropriate. There is a general flow that is used to make the correcting entries:
1. The process flow starts with the bank’s ending cash balance
2. Add any deposits made by the company to the bank that are in transit
3. Deduct any cheques that are uncleared by the bank
4. Add or deduct any other differences available as necessary
5. In the company bank records, once again start with the ending balance
6. Add interests earned
7. Deduct any bank service fees, penalties and NSF (Non-Sufficient Funds) cheques.
8. Add or deduct any other differences available as necessary
At the end of this process, it is likely that both accounts would be equal and tally.
Please refer attached table for details on the calculation.
Answer:
See below.
Explanation:
Since the expenses are related to the formation of the business, we first capitalize these expenses and record them in our balance sheet as,
Debit Intangible Assets (Formation) by $48,500
Credit Cash/Bank by $48,500
This records an asset for the year of operation.
We amortize or depreciate these type of capitalized costs over a defined period of time. Assuming that we write off the entire cost by the end of first year we will record amortization as,
Debit Amortization expense/Income statement by $48,500
Credit Intangible Assets (Formation) by $48,500
Hope that helps.
Answer:
Sam change: -5.13%
Dave change -18.01%
Explanation:
If interest rate increase by 2%
then the YTM of the bond will be 9.3%
We need eto calcualte the present value of the coupon and maturity of the bond at this new rate:
<em><u>For the coupon payment we use the formula for ordinary annuity</u></em>
Coupon payment: 1,000 x 7.3% / 2 payment per year: 36.50
time 6 (3 years x 2 payment per year)
YTM seiannual: 0.0465 (9.3% annual /2 = 4.65% semiannual)
PV $187.3546
<u><em>For the maturity we calculate usign the lump sum formula:</em></u>
Maturity: $ 1,000.00
time: 6 payment
rate: 0.0465
PV 761.32
Now, we add both together:
PV coupon $187.3546 + PV maturity $761.3154 = $948.6700
now we calcualte the change in percentage:
948.67/1,000 - 1 = -0.051330026 = -5.13
For Dave we do the same:
C 36.50
time 40
rate 0.0465
PV $657.5166
Maturity 1,000.00
time 40.00
rate 0.0465
PV 162.34
PV c $657.5166
PV m $162.3419
Total $819.8585
Change:
819.86 / 1,000 - 1 = -0.180141521 = -18.01%
Answer:
c. Real GDP in long run
Explanation:
Potential GDP refers to the level of real GDP in long run.
Answer:
d. Over time
Explanation:
The interest revenue will be recognize over time, regardless of the payment
If we only recognize revenue at payment due, if the bank client doesn't paid then we cannot recognize the accrued interest receivable.
We will recognize over time.
