Answer:
Cost of equity is 11.2%
WACC is 8.74%
Explanation:
The formula for cost of equity is given below:
Cost of equity=risk free rate+(Beta *risk premium)
risk free rate is the treasury bill rate of 4%
Beta is 0.9
market risk premium is 8%
cost of equity=4%+(0.9*8%)=11.2%
WACC=Ke*E/V+Kd*D/V*(1-t)
Ke is the cost of equity of 11.2%
Kd is the cost of debt of 5%
t is the tax rate of 40% or 0.4
E is the equity weighting of 70% or 0.7
D is the debt weighting of 30% or 0.3
V is the E+D=0.7+0.3=1
WACC=11.20%
*0.7/1+(5%*0.3/1*(1-0.4)
WACC=7.84%
+0.90%
=8.74%
Explanation:
because you are not sure how good they are at working
Answer:
A) $800,000
Explanation:
Since the current reserve ratio is 20%, and the bank has no excess reserves, then the maximum it can lend if it receives $1 is $800,000.
The bank has currently $50 million in deposits and $10 million in reserves ($6 million in cash and $4 million in the Fed), so its reserves are exactly 20% of its total deposits. So if any new deposits are received, the bank will have to keep as reserves 20% of it (= $1,000,000 x 20% = $200,000).
This type of banking system is called the fractional banking system because banks are only required to keep a fraction of the money they receive as deposits and they can lend the rest to other clients.
Answer:
$46,000
Explanation:
We can find out the the revaluation gain that need to be reported at the year end by just deducting the the cost of the investment by its current fair value .
DATA
Fair value = 588,000
Cost = 542,000
Revaluation gain = Current fair value - Cost
Revaluation gain = 588,000 - 542,000
Revaluation gain = $46,000
The revaluation gain of $46,000 will be reported in other compreensive income of smith's financial statements.
Answer: The correct answer is "(A) Materiality.".
Explanation: The concept demonstrated is Materiality because by having a mechanism for preventing bad accounts through their strict requirements, they only recorded bad accounts when they actually existed, instead of making a provision.
