An infinite series contains an infinite amount if values within a set S({}. A finite series contains a certain am0unt of values (for example, the numbers from 1 to 10)
The first one is a finite set since it has a known amount of values. This can be seen as a tangible set. The second set has an unknown end. This makes it intangible.
A function z=f(x,y) has two partial derivatives and y. These derivatives correspond to each of the independent variables and can be interpreted as instantaneous rates of change (that is, as slopes of a tangent line). Similarly, ∂z/∂y represents the slope of the tangent line parallel to the y-axis.
The answer to this problem is no.
I believe the answer is B :-)