Answer:
$20.
Explanation:
As the question require us to calculate the profit when one unit in excess of break-even point is sold, so we have to calculate the break-even quantity first. The formula to calculate the break-even quantity is:
Break-even Units = Fixed Cost / (Contribution Margin Per Unit)
where
Contribution margin per unit = Selling price per unit - variable cost per unit
⇒ Break-even units = 15 / (50 - 30) = .75.
This makes the one unit in excess of break-even volume to be 1.75. Now, we have to draft the income statement to determine the operating profit when sales volume is 1.75.
Income Statement
Revenue (50 * 1.75) $87.5
Variable Cost (30 * 1.75) (52.5)
Fixed Cost (15)
Operating Profit $20
Answer:
B.
Explanation:
Parenthesis are used to add the other content such as references guidelines, although they are not important but some readers tend to verify the argument so to guide them they content is given in parenthesis.
In example a: The information about the page is given by dash which is incorrect to do so.
In example b: The other information such as reference ( p.27) is given accurately.
In example C: My address is highlight by quoting, and it's not a quote, So, it's incorrect.
Answer:
1.
Required rate = risk free rate + beta (market rate – risk free rate)
.12 = 0.0525 + 1.25(X – 0.0525)
1.25X – 0.065625 = .12 – 0.0525
1.25X = 0.0675 + 0.065625
X = .1333125/1.25
= 0.1065
Marker risk premium = market rate – risk free rate
= .1065 – 0.0525
= 0.054 (A)
2.
Beta of portfolio = (5000000/5500000)* 1.25 + (500000/5500000)* 1
= 0.90909* 1.25 + 0.090909* 1
= 1.136 + 0.090909
= 1.2273
3.
Required rate = risk free rate + beta (market rate – risk free rate)
= 0.0525 + 1.2273* 0.054
= 0.0525 + 0.06627
= .11877 or 11.88%
Answer:
We can infer from the graph, that about two thirds (around 60%) of the world's population lived in Asia in 2008.
Asia is by far the most populated continent in the world. The two most populous countries of the globe are located in Asia: India, and China, each with over 1 billion people.
If you need to indicate the missing ammount of each letter in the grahp then it will be like follows:
For the first case:
A = $9,600 + $5,000 + $8,000 = $22,600$22,600 + $1,000 – B = $17,000
B = $22,600 + $1,000 – $17,000 = $6,600$17,000 + C = $20,000
C = $20,000 – $17,000 = $3,000
D = $20,000 – $3,400 = $16,600
<span>E = ($24,500 – $2,500) – $16,600 = $5,400
</span><span>F = $5,400 – $2,500 = $2,900
</span>And now for the second case:
G + $8,000 + $4,000 = $16,000
G = $16,000 – $8,000 – $4,000 = $4,000$16,000 + H – $3,000 = $22,000
H = $22,000 + $3,000 – $16,000 = $9,000(I – $1,400) – K = $7,000(I – $1,400) – $22,800 = $7,000
<span>I = $1,400 + $22,800 + $7,000 = $31,200
</span>J = $22,000 + $3,300 = $25,300
K = $25,300 – $2,500 = $22,800$7,000 – L = $5,000
<span>L = $2,000</span>
