Answer:
Plan 1= $40 per shares
Plan 2= $40 per shares
Explanation:
We can therefore calculate the price as the value of shares repurchased divided by the number of shares repurchased.
Hence:
Plan I, the value per share will be:
P = $120,000 / (15,000 – 12,000 shares)
P=$120,000/$3,000
P = $40 per share
Plan II, the value per share will be :
P = $140,000 / (15,000 – 11,500 shares)
P=$140,000/$3,500
P = $40 per share
Therefore the EPS for each of these plans is Plan l =$40 per shares and Plan ll=$40 per shares
An audit client hires a member of the audit engagement team to be its new controller. Sarbanes-Oxley rules require that: The new controller sever all relations with the CPA firm, including any retirement funds.
<h3>
What is the Sarbanes-Oxley act? </h3>
- The Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002, a federal law, was established for sweeping auditing and financial regulations for public companies.
- Lawmakers created the legislation to assist protect shareholders, employees and therefore the public from accounting errors and fraudulent financial practices. Auditors, accountants and company officers became accountable for the new set of rules.
- These rules were amendments and additions to many laws enforced by the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC), including the Securities and Exchange Act of 1934 and therefore the Investment Advisers Act of 1940.
- The Sarbanes-Oxley Act is enforces by SEC
To learn more about Sarbanes-Oxley Act: brainly.com/question/27915345
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Answer:
$114,338
Explanation:
The computation of the amount that should be billed when 1,400 professional labor hours used
But before that determine the actual per hour salary and budgeted indirect cost per hour
Actual per hour salary
= Total actual salary ÷ Total actual professional hours
= ($110,000 × $20 + $30,000× 10) ÷ (60,000)
= ($2,200,000 + $300,000) ÷ (60,000)
= $41.67
And, the budgeted indirect cost per hour is
= $200,000 ÷ $50,000
= $40
Now the amount that should be billed is
= 1,400 hours × ($41.67 + $40)
= $114,338
Answer:
The correctt answer that fills the gap is Double.
Explanation:
GDP per capita, income per capita or income per capita is an economic indicator that measures the relationship between the level of income of a country and its population. For this, the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) of said territory is divided by the number of inhabitants.
The use of per capita income as an indicator of wealth or economic stability of a territory makes sense because through its calculation, national income is interrelated (through GDP in a specific period) and the inhabitants of this place.
The objective of GDP per capita is to obtain data that shows in some way the level of wealth or welfare of that territory at a given time. It is often used as a measure of comparison between different countries, to show differences in economic conditions.
Answer:
The correct answers are the options:
B) The outcome will result in the rights to an activity going to the party that deserves them the most
D) Bargaining will be efficient since transactions costs are eliminated.
Explanation:
To begin with, the concept that is name as "Coase Theorem" is famously known in the microeconomics theory as the statement that describes the economic efficiency of an outcome that involves externalities. Moreover, it indicates that if a trade between two private parties is possible and the transactions costs are low, then it all will end up in a Pareto efficiency situation in where the party that it deserves the most will be benefit himself from that. However the theorem is just that, a theorem, it is very difficult to be applicable for the real life economics due to the fact that in real life the transactions costs are rarely low enough.