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ch4aika [34]
3 years ago
5

(MUST BE CORRECT FOR MORE POINTS)

History
1 answer:
Yakvenalex [24]3 years ago
6 0
Thr Missouri Compromise stated that all states below a line would be slave states and all above it would be free. This was fine for a time, until the slave states and free states began to fight over representation in government. The more free states, the more representation they got and vice versa. This led to a sort of race for people to gain as many states as possible for better representation in government, causing the US to span from Sea to Shining Sea.
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Why were the 1920s an era of conservatism?
Rudik [331]
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3 years ago
How did feudalism word?explain
Lubov Fominskaja [6]

Feudalism was a European political system in which a lord owned all the land while vassals and serfs farmed it.

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3 years ago
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Cause: World War 1 caused heavy casualties and property damage throughout Europe. Many people barely had enough food to eat or c
Savatey [412]

In Russia, World War I became the catalyst for the ovethrow of Czar Nicholas II and the rise of the Communist Party (Bolshevik Revolution) led by Vladmir Lenin. Russia became the first Communist country. Communism eventually spread to small countries near Russia and eventually spread to Cuba, China and Vietnam.

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4 years ago
Which summary of the 19th century most clearly emphasizes the theme of economic change?
IgorLugansk [536]

<u>Answer:</u>

<em>B. mostly agrarian society became largely urbanizes as a result of the industrial revolution </em>

<em></em>

<u>Explanation:</u>

The industrial revolution has a significant development period in the eighteenth-century that had transformed the rural and other agrarian societies, mainly in Europe and industrialized the urban centers in America.

When goods had been painstakingly crafted, the production increased in many quantities through machines and factories. This was made possible because of the introduction of types of machinery and other technologies that were used in different industries.

3 0
3 years ago
(10 points)
stich3 [128]

Answer:

A

Explanation:

Because government officials according to the rule of law have the same level as citizens of the United States

4 0
3 years ago
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