Answer:
an under applied of $10,300
Explanation:
The computation of the over applied or under applied is shown below;
Difference in overhead = Actual overhead - applied overhead
= $418,900 - ($227,000 × ($401,400 ÷ $223,000))
= $418,900 - $408,600
= $10,300
Since actual overhead is more than the applied overhead so it is an under applied of $10,300
Answer:
I believe that your question is missing a couple of options. I searched for similar questions and they all included the one option I am looking for (see attached image):
If the budget is continuously updated, checked and revised every quarter, and the company's tax year ends December 31, then the next first quarter is going to be January - March. This means that at the end of March, the budget will be revised and updated, and these changes will apply to the following year which stars on April 2017 and ends on March 2018.
The correct option would be:
- April 2017 to march 2018.
In order for option A to be correct, the company's tax year should end on October. For option B to be correct, the tax year should end on November. Finally, for C to be correct, the tax yer should end on August.
Answer:
b. $6,600,000
Explanation:
The computation of the fee is shown below:
= Annual management fee + performance management fee
where,
Annual management fee = $400 million × 0.01 = $4 million
And, the performance management fee
= Incentive percentage × hedge fund × excess return
= 20% × $400 million × 3.25%
= $2.6 million
The excess return is
= {($445 million - $400 million) × $400 million - 8%}
= 11.25% - 8%
= 3.25%
So, the fee is
= $4 million + $2.6 million
= $6.6 million or $6,600,000
Answer and Explanation:
The journal entry to record the cash sales is shown below:
Cash $82,680
To Sales $78,000 ($82,680 × 100 ÷ 106)
To Sales taxes payable $4,680 ($82,680 × 6 ÷ 106)
(Being the cash sales is recorded)
Here cash is debited as it increased the assets while on the other hand the sales and sales tax payable is credited as it increased the revenue and liability
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