Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
P(x) = R(x) - C(x)
Where,
P(x) = Total profit
R(x) = Total revenue
C(x) = Total cost
R(x)equals150.97 x minus 0.3 x squared
R(x) = 150.97x - 0.3x^2
Upper C left parenthesis x right parenthesis equals 4529.10 plus 0.5 x squared.
C(x) = 4529.10 + 0.5x^2
P(x) = R(x) - C(x)
= (150.97x - 0.3x^2) - ( 4529.10 + 0.5x^2)
= 150.97x - 0.3x^2 - 4529.10 - 0.5x^2
= 150.97x - 0.8x^2 - 4529.10
P(x) = -0.8x^2 + 150.97x - 4529.10
Answer:
The probability of the tip to be more than 200 is 0.1.
Step-by-step explanation:
As per the given data
Amount of tip Number
0-20 200
20-50 100
50-100 75
100-200 75
200+ 50
____________________
Total= 500
So what is the probability of tip to be more than 200 is given as

From the table the value is 50 for the tip to be more than 200 where as the total occurrences are 500 so substituting values:

So the probability of the tip to be more than 200 is 0.1.
The simulation of the medicine and the bowler hat are illustrations of probability
- The probability that the medicine is effective on at least two is 0.767
- The probability that the medicine is effective on none is 0
- The probability that the bowler hits a headpin 4 out of 5 times is 0.3281
<h3>The probability that the medicine is effective on at least two</h3>
From the question,
- Numbers 1 to 7 represents the medicine being effective
- 0, 8 and 9 represents the medicine not being effective
From the simulation, 23 of the 30 randomly generated numbers show that the medicine is effective on at least two
So, the probability is:
p = 23/30
p = 0.767
Hence, the probability that the medicine is effective on at least two is 0.767
<h3>The probability that the medicine is effective on none</h3>
From the simulation, 0 of the 30 randomly generated numbers show that the medicine is effective on none
So, the probability is:
p = 0/30
p = 0
Hence, the probability that the medicine is effective on none is 0
<h3>The probability a bowler hits a headpin</h3>
The probability of hitting a headpin is:
p = 90%
The probability a bowler hits a headpin 4 out of 5 times is:
P(x) = nCx * p^x * (1 - p)^(n - x)
So, we have:
P(4) = 5C4 * (90%)^4 * (1 - 90%)^1
P(4) = 0.3281
Hence, the probability that the bowler hits a headpin 4 out of 5 times is 0.3281
Read more about probabilities at:
brainly.com/question/25870256
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
1. 2x + y
2. 48 + 60 = 108
3. 840 - 210 = 630