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Pavel [41]
4 years ago
9

Assume the time required to complete a product is normally distributed with a mean 3.2 hours and standard deviation .4 hours. Ho

w long should it take to complete a random unit in order to be in the top 10% (right tail) of the time distribution?
Mathematics
1 answer:
Alex787 [66]4 years ago
3 0

Answer: 3.712 hours or more

Step-by-step explanation:

Let X be the random variable that denotes the time required to complete a product.

X is normally distributed.

X\sim N(\mu=3.2\text{ hours},\ \sigma=0.4\text{ hours} )

Let x be the times it takes to complete a random unit in order to be in the top 10% (right tail) of the time distribution.

Then, P(\dfrac{X-\mu}{\sigma}>\dfrac{x-\mu}{\sigma})=0.10

P(z>\dfrac{x-3.2}{\sigma})=0.10\ \ \ [z=\dfrac{x-\mu}{\sigma}]

As, P(z>1.28)=0.10  [By z-table]

Then,

\dfrac{x-3.2}{0.4}=1.28\\\\\Rightarrow\ x=0.4\times1.28+3.2\\\\\Rightarrow\ x=3.712

So, it will take 3.712 hours or more to complete a random unit in order to be in the top 10% (right tail) of the time distribution.

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Sedbober [7]

Step-by-step explanation:

3n + 6( -8n + 9)

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= - 45n + 54

Hope it will help

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A random sample of 12 supermarkets from Region 1 had mean sales of 84 with a standard deviation of 6.6. A random sample of 17 su
Sladkaya [172]

Answer:

We conclude that there is no difference in potential mean sales per market in Region 1 and 2.

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given that a random sample of 12 supermarkets from Region 1 had mean sales of 84 with a standard deviation of 6.6.

A random sample of 17 supermarkets from Region 2 had a mean sales of 78.3 with a standard deviation of 8.5.

Let \mu_1 = mean sales per market in Region 1.

\mu_2  = mean sales per market in Region 2.

So, Null Hypothesis, H_0 : \mu_1-\mu_2 = 0      {means that there is no difference in potential mean sales per market in Region 1 and 2}

Alternate Hypothesis, H_A : > \mu_1-\mu_2\neq 0      {means that there is a difference in potential mean sales per market in Region 1 and 2}

The test statistics that will be used here is <u>Two-sample t-test statistics</u> because we don't know about population standard deviations;

                            T.S.  =  \frac{(\bar X_1 -\bar X_2)-(\mu_1-\mu_2)}{s_p \times \sqrt{\frac{1}{n_1}+ {\frac{1}{n_2}}} }   ~  t__n_1_+_n_2_-_2

where, \bar X_1 = sample mean sales in Region 1 = 84

\bar X_2 = sample mean sales in Region 2 = 78.3

s_1  = sample standard deviation of sales in Region 1 = 6.6

s_2  = sample standard deviation of sales in Region 2 = 8.5

n_1 = sample of supermarkets from Region 1 = 12

n_2 = sample of supermarkets from Region 2 = 17

Also, s_p=\sqrt{\frac{(n_1-1)\times s_1^{2}+(n_2-1)\times  s_2^{2}  }{n_1+n_2-2} }  = s_p=\sqrt{\frac{(12-1)\times 6.6^{2}+(17-1)\times  8.5^{2}  }{12+17-2} } = 7.782

So, <u><em>the test statistics</em></u> =  \frac{(84-78.3)-(0)}{7.782 \times \sqrt{\frac{1}{12}+ {\frac{1}{17}}} }  ~   t_2_7

                                   =  1.943  

The value of t-test statistics is 1.943.

 

Now, at a 0.02 level of significance, the t table  gives a critical value of -2.472 and 2.473 at 27 degrees of freedom for the two-tailed test.

Since the value of our test statistics lies within the range of critical values of t, so we have<u><em> insufficient evidence to reject our null hypothesis</em></u> as it will not fall in the rejection region.

Therefore, we conclude that there is no difference in potential mean sales per market in Region 1 and 2.

6 0
3 years ago
95 points <br><br> Simplify (4^9/4^3)^5 Show your work for full credit
dexar [7]

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

  • (4^9/4^3)^5=
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What is the first ordered pair and the second ordered pair?
Delvig [45]
When x=-5, y=(1/5)*(-5)-1=-2, so the first order pair is (-5,-2)
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aliya0001 [1]

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

To calculate area of a rectangle, you use the formula length times width, or base times height.

5 x 8 = 40 feet squared

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