Answer:
should also be 40
Step-by-step explanation:
the measure of angle 1 is equivelent to angle two, since they both lie ont he same line.
SOLUTION
This is a binomial probability. For i, we will apply the Binomial probability formula
i. Exactly 2 are defective
Using the formula, we have

Note that I made the probability of being defective as the probability of success = p
and probability of none defective as probability of failure = q
Exactly 2 are defective becomes the binomial probability

Hence the answer is 0.1157
(ii) None is defective becomes

hence the answer is 0.4823
(iii) All are defective

(iv) At least one is defective
This is 1 - probability that none is defective

Hence the answer is 0.5177
Answer: x < 4
Step-by-step explanation: You are trying to isolate the variable, x, so you have to subtract 1 on both sides of the inequality. Then, you are left with x < 4.
Answer:
$1015.11
Step-by-step explanation:
Compounded interest rate formula: A = P(1 + r/n)^t
Step 1: Plug in known variables
A = 1000(1 + 0.005/12)^36
Step 2: Multiply it all together
1000(1.00042)^36
1000(1.01511)
1015.11
This is a pretty bad bank considering only giving you .5% interest per month.