Answer:
6194.84
Step-by-step explanation:
Using the formula for calculating accumulated annuity amount
F = P × ([1 + I]^N - 1 )/I
Where P is the payment amount. I is equal to the interest (discount) rate and N number of duration
For 40 years,
X = 100[(1 + i)^40 + (1 + i)^36 + · · ·+ (1 + i)^4]
=[100 × (1+i)^4 × (1 - (1 + i)^40]/1 − (1 + i)^4
For 20 years,
Y = A(20) = 100[(1+i)^20+(1+i)^16+· · ·+(1+i)^4]
Using X = 5Y (5 times the accumulated amount in the account at the ned of 20 years) and using a difference of squares on the left side gives
1 + (1 + i)^20 = 5
so (1 + i)^20 = 4
so (1 + i)^4 = 4^0.2 = 1.319508
Hence X = [100 × (1 + i)^4 × (1 − (1 + i)^40)] / 1 − (1 + i)^4
= [100×1.3195×(1−4^2)] / 1−1.3195
X = 6194.84
Answer:
11
Step-by-step explanation:
Can you restate it or rewrite it? It doesn't have enough for me to answer this.
The coefficient is the number . so if the problem said 16x the coefficient would be 16 . the answer is 14
Answer:
x+3y=-1
Step-by-step explanation:
y=3x-2 so m=3 old slope
the new slope must be -1/3 (opposite reciprocal of the old slope).
y-y0=m*(x-x0)
y-2=-1/3*(x-(-7))
y-2=-1/3x-1/3*7
y-2=-1/3x-7/3
3y-6=-x-7
The standard form for linear equations in two variables is Ax+By=C.
x+3y=6-7
x+3y=-1
