Answer:
D. $77,600
Explanation:
The $77,600 made to purchase equipment would be reported as a cash outflow in the investing activities section. This is because asset purchased such as equipment is an investment while the cash used to purchase the asset is regarded as cash outflow.
Dividends are recorded in the financing section, while cash paid for interest and paid to suppliers would be recorded in the operating activities.
The correct answer is d). We have that government spending can also give way to products and services, just like private enterprises, thus there is no double-counting there. Services such as haircuts have their own value, which are separate from any other material products. Finally exports are also not counted twice; Raw materials though would be counted twice if we counted them for the GDP since their value is incorporated in the value of the final product. For example, we cannot count towards the GDP the value of rubber production in a country since then, if we counted the value of the tires too, we would count the value of the rubber in the tires twice (one time as rubber/ one time as part of the tire).
Fair test can help you avoid wrong answers as they are used in finding right answers in research.
<h3>What is fair test?</h3>
Fair test is used to investigate in research, the researcher keeps some variable as constant while other are changed and not constant to get effective answers. Fair test can be used to generate accurate answers in research.
Therefore, fair test can help you avoid wrong answers as they are used in finding right answers in research.
Learn more on fair test below,
brainly.com/question/6791607
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Answer: -12.1%
Explanation:
Bond Sam was priced at Par which means it could have been priced at $1,000 and its yield was the same as the coupon rate of 8%.
If interest rates rise by 5%, the yield becomes:
= 8% + 5%
= 13%
Price of bond is attached:
Yield = 13% /2 = 6.5% per semiannual period
Coupon = 8% * 1,000 * 0.5 = $40 per semi annual period
Period till maturity = 3 * 2 = 6 semiannual periods
Price = $878.97
Percentage change in price:
= (878.97 - 1,000) / 1,000 * 100%
= -12.1%
Answer:
True
Explanation:
the risk to the firm of being unable to obtain funds when needed is lower than if it had an informal line of credit.
