Answer:
274.7%
Explanation:
The total amount that Eric will borrow will be = 43114311+33503350+13391339 = 90009000.
Now to calculate WACC, we will apply the WACC formula:
WACC = (43114311/90009000)*0.66 + (33503350/90009000)*0.88 + (13391339/90009000)*14.14
Hence,
WACC = 274.74%
The solution was very simple, we just applied the WACC formula by taking the total amount of debt in the denominator of each of the loans taken and multiplied it by the interest rate on which it is taken.
Hope this helps, although I think the values in the question are not correct, but nonetheless I have provide the correct solution according to the given values.
Thanks.
Answer: The correct answer is A) The subsidiary revalues assets and liabilities to their fair values as of the acquisition date.
Explanation: Push down accounting is used when a company buys another company. This type of accounting revalues the assets and liabilities of the acquired company at a fair value on the date of acquisition.
Answer:
Jillian
What Jillian should ideally do is:
a. Contribute 1650 in a Roth IRA, and 1350 In her company’s 401(k) plan.
Explanation:
a) Data and Calculations:
Salary = $45,000
401(k) = 3% of $45,000 = $1,350
Employer's match to the 401(k) = $1,350 (100%)
Savings affordable = $3,000
b) Jillian can contribute to Roth IRA and her company 401(k) which her company will also match 100%. Her contributions to both funds are within the allowed limits. In 2020, the allowed limit of 401(k) plan is $19,500 while that of Roth IRA is $6,000.
Answer:
Cost of equity = 10.10%
Explanation:
<em>Cost of equity can be ascertained using the dividend valuation model. The model states that the price of a stock is the present value of future dividends discounted at the required rate of return. </em>
Ke=( Do( 1+g)/P ) + g
g- growth rate in dividend, P- price of the stock, Ke- required return, D- dividend payable in now
DATA
D0- (1+g) = 5.05
g- 3.60%
P- 77.75
Note that the D0× (1+g) simply implies the dividend expected in year one, that is one year from now. And this has been given as 5.05 in the question, hence there is no need to apply the growth rate again.
Cost of equity = (5.05/77.75 + 0.036)× 100= 10.095%
Cost of equity = 10.10%
