Answer:
it is 1 2/10 but simplified to 1 1/5
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
x = 0
Step-by-step explanation:
6 - 2x = 6x - 10x + 6
1. Isolate the variable (x)
6 - 2x = 6x - 10x + 6 -> 6 = 6x - 10x + 2x + 6
- Subtract 6 from both sides
6x - 10x + 2x + 6 -> 0 = 6x - 10x + 2x
2. Combine like terms
0 = 6x - 10x + 2x -> 0 = -2x
3. Solve
0 = x
*Note: 0 divided by anything is 0 so 0/-2 is 0
(unless it is 0/0 which equals 1)
You will need three roots for this, so we have
Let x = -30, -10 and +20
So the factors will be (x+30)(x+10)(x-20)
The divide it to 100, this will help bring the peak up and down
So the polynomial function R(x) will become
1/100 * (x+30)(x+10)(x-20)
R(x) = 1/100 * (x+30)(x+10)(x-20)
Finding the X-intercept:
Let R(x) = 0 and solve for x.
1/100 * (x+30)(x+10)(x-20) = 0
x = -30, -10, 20 are the x-intercepts.
Answer:
hope it helps.................
Complete question is;
Regarding the violation of multicollinearity, which of the following description is wrong?
a. It changes the intercept of the regression line.
b. It changes the sign of the slope.
c. It changes the slope of the regression line.
d. It changes the value of F-tests.
e. It changes the value of T-tests
Answer:
a. It changes the intercept of the regression line
Step-by-step explanation:
Multicollinearity is a term used in multiple regression analysis to show a high correlation between independent variables of a study.
Since it deals with independent variables correlation, it means it must be found before getting the regression equation.
Now, looking at the options, the one that doesn't relate with multicollinearity is option A because the intercept of the regression line is the value of y that is predicted when x is 0. Meanwhile, multicollinearity from definition above does in no way change the intercept of the regression line because it doesn't predict the y-value when x is zero.
