Answer:
Yes, I have absolutely no control when it comes to shopping.
Explanation:
Answer and Explanation:
The computation is shown below:
For Direct labor rate variance, it is
= (Actual rate - Standard rate) × Actual hour
= ($14.5 - $14.8) × 2,430 hours
= $729 favorable
For Time variance, it is
= (Actual hours - standard hours) × standard rate
= (2,430 hours - 2,390 hours) × $14.80
= $592 unfavorable
So, the Total labour cost variance is
= $729 favorable + $592 unfavorable
= $137 favorable
Answer:
Johan Co.
Explanation:
Since in the question it is given that the Johan Co. has an intangible asset and we already know that on an intangible asset, the amortization expense is charged whereas on the other side the Abco Co has goodwill on which the impairment is charged
So, in the given scenario, the amortization should be reported on Johan Co financial statements only
Working capital is calculated by subtracting current liabilities from current assets shown on a company's balance sheet. Current assets include cash, accounts receivable and inventories. Current liabilities include accounts payable, taxes, wages and accrued interest.
Working capital is calculated by subtracting current assets from a company's current liabilities. For example, if a company has current assets of $100,000 and current liabilities of $80,000, its working capital is $20,000.
To calculate the working capital requirement, the following formula can be used: Working Capital (WC) = Current Assets (CA) – Current Assets (CL).
Learn more about working capital here:brainly.com/question/19804046
#SPJ4
