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3 years ago

Help Please question in the picture

Mathematics

1 answer:

DIA [1.3K]3 years ago

5 0

Answer:

Option (1)

Step-by-step explanation:

Given figure in the picture has two parallel sides and fulfilling the property of a trapezium.

Since, an isosceles trapezium contains two parallel sides and other pair of the sides are equal in length.

Therefore, the given trapezium can't be an isosceles trapezium.

Option (1) will be the correct option.

You might be interested in

How many different ways can the letters of “football” be arranged

makvit [3.9K]

<h3>Answer: 10,080</h3>

Explanation:

There are 8 letters so there are 8! = 8*7*6*5*4*3*2*1 = 40,320 permutations of those letters. However, the letters "O" and "L" show up twice each, so we must divide by 2! = 2*1 = 2 for each instance this happens.

So,

(8!)/(2!*2!) = (40,320)/(2*2) = (40,320)/4 = 10,080

is the number of ways to arrange the letters of "football".

The reason we divide by 2 for each instance of a duplicate letter is because we can't tell the difference between the two "O"s or the two "L"s. If there was a way to distinguish between them, then we wouldnt have to divide by 2.

3 0

3 years ago

-2/3 divided by 5/4 in simplified form, in a fraction

Ivanshal [37]

(-2/3) / (5/4) =
-2/3 * 4/5 =
-8/15 <=

8 0

3 years ago

About 11% of adult Americans are left-handed. Suppose that two people are randomly selected from this

marshall27 [118]

Answer:

a) $P(X=0)=(2C0)(0.11)^0 (1-0.11)^{2-0}=0.7921$

$P(X=1)=(2C1)(0.11)^1 (1-0.11)^{2-1}=0.1958$

$P(X=2)=(2C2)(0.11)^2 (1-0.11)^{2-2}=0.0121$

And then we have our probability distribution like this:

X | 0 | 1 | 2 |

P(X) | 0.7921 | 0.1958 | 0.0121|

b) $P(X \geq 1) = P(X=1)+P(X=2) = 0.1958+0.0121=0.2079$

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

$X \sim Binom(n=20, p=0.48)$

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

$P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}$

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

$nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}$

Solution for the problem

Part a

On this case since we select a sample size of n =2 we have the following values for the number of left handed X=0,1,2. We can find the probabilities for each case since we know that p=0.11.

$P(X=0)=(2C0)(0.11)^0 (1-0.11)^{2-0}=0.7921$

$P(X=1)=(2C1)(0.11)^1 (1-0.11)^{2-1}=0.1958$

$P(X=2)=(2C2)(0.11)^2 (1-0.11)^{2-2}=0.0121$

And then we have our probability distribution like this:

X | 0 | 1 | 2 |

P(X) | 0.7921 | 0.1958 | 0.0121|

Part b

For this case we want this probability:

$P(X \geq 1) = P(X=1)+P(X=2) = 0.1958+0.0121=0.2079$

8 0

3 years ago

Please someone help :) thanks ; )

sammy [17]

X/4 = 21
x = 21 · 4
x = 84

6 0

4 years ago

Read 2 more answers

The dimensions of a smaller rectangle are 3 ft by 9 ft. The dimensions of a larger rectangle are sit by 11 ft. Find the ratio of

hodyreva [135]

Answer:

I think that the ratio would be 12:11

Step-by-step explanation:

Because if you multiply 3 and 9 then you do 12:11

5 0

3 years ago