Make the equation the same or a multiple of the other to have an infinite number of solutions. See how the -8/2= -4 and 6/2=3 ? then -2/2 = c
Make c = -1 and they are the same linear equation. (same slope, same intercepts, same line) and therefore have infinite solutions.
In order to have no solutions, the lines cannot cross at all and so they must be parallel but not the same line. Parallel lines have the same slope with different intercepts. if you rearrange both equations in slope intercept form:
y = x/3 - 4/3
y = - cx/3 - 4/3
no matter what you make c the lines will always cross at the y-intercept (0, -4/3). this is a solution and therefore there's no value of c that would produce a system with no solution.
Answer:
an Injective function is a function that maps distinct elements of its domain to distinct elements of its codomain. In other words, every element of the function's codomain is the image of at most one element of its domain.
Step-by-step explanation:
The way you find profit is to subtract the revenue and the cost
Profit = Revenue - Cost
The revenue is the amount of money coming in, the cost is the amount of money going out. The goal of course is to have the revenue larger than the cost so that the profit is positive.
So the equation given is
P = 7.5n - (2.25n+15)
and its in the form
P = R - C
where...
R = 7.5n is the revenue equation
C = 2.25n+15 is the cost equation
Focus on the revenue equation
R = 7.5n
which is the same as
R = 7.50*n
This tells us that Sandra pulls in a total of 7.50*n dollars where n is some positive whole number. It represents the number of necklaces sold. For example, if she sold n = 10 necklaces, then
R = 7.50*n
R = 7.50*10
R = 750
meaning that Sandra has made $750 in revenue
As you can see above, the revenue is computed by multiplying the price per necklace ($7.50) by the number of necklaces sold (n) to get R = 7.50*n
So that's why the answer is $7.50
Note: The 2.25 is part of the cost equation. This is known as the variable cost. It is the cost to make one necklace ignoring the fixed cost (eg: rent). The variable cost often doesn't stay the same, but algebra textbooks often simplify this aspect.
Answer:
0.3891 = 38.91% probability that only one is a second
Step-by-step explanation:
For each globet, there are only two possible outcoes. Either they have cosmetic flaws, or they do not. The probability of a goblet having a cosmetic flaw is independent of other globets. So we use the binomial probability distribution to solve this question.
Binomial probability distribution
The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.
In which 
is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.
And p is the probability of X happening.
17% of its goblets have cosmetic flaws and must be classified as "seconds."
This means that 
Among seven randomly selected goblets, how likely is it that only one is a second
This is P(X = 1) when n = 7. So
0.3891 = 38.91% probability that only one is a second
Answer:
v = 23
Step-by-step explanation:
Formatting the question gives;
a = mg - kv² / m
Make v subject of the formula as follows;
(i) Multiply both sides by m
ma = m²g - kv²
(ii) Collect like terms
kv² = m²g - ma
(iii) Divide through by k
v² = (m²g - ma) / k
(iv) Take the square root of both sides
v = √ [(m²g - ma) / k] --------------(ii)
From the question:
a = 2.8
m = 12
g = 9.8
k = 8/3
Substitute these values into equation (i) as follows;
v = √ [(12²(9.8) - 12(2.8)) / (8/3)]
v = √ [(1411.2 - 33.6) / (8/3)]
v = √ [1377.6 / (8/3)]
v = √ [1377.6 x (3/8)]
v = √ [1377.6 x 3 / 8)]
v = √ [516.6]
v = 22.73
v = 23 [to the nearest whole number]
Therefore v = 23 to the nearest whole number
