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hram777 [196]
2 years ago
13

I

Mathematics
1 answer:
atroni [7]2 years ago
5 0

Answer: 16⅔ yds by 25 yds

Step-by-step explanation:

Let x be the length of 3 fence sections

Let y be the length of 2 fence sections

A = xy

3x + 2y = 100

y = 50 - 1.5x

A = x(50 - 1.5x) = 50x - 1.5x²

dA/dx = 50 - 3x

       0 = 50 - 3x

      3x = 50

        x = 50/3 = 16⅔ yds

        y = 50 - 1.5(16⅔) = 25 yds

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Naddik [55]

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

b is the range

8 0
2 years ago
A group of friends wants to go to the amusement park. They have no more than $65 to spend on parking and admission. Parking is $
Aloiza [94]

Considering the definition of an inequality, the number of people who can go to the amusement park is 3.

<h3>Definition of inequality</h3>

An inequality is the existing inequality between two algebraic expressions, connected through the signs:

  • greater than >.
  • less than <.
  • less than or equal to ≤.
  • greater than or equal to ≥.

An inequality contains one or more unknown values ​​called unknowns, in addition to certain known data.

Solving an inequality consists of finding all the values ​​of the unknown for which the inequality relation holds.

<h3>Number of people who can go to the amusement park</h3>

In this case, you know that:

  • A group of friends has no more than $65 to spend on parking and admission.
  • Parking is $9.75, and tickets cost $16.25 per person, including tax.

Being "p" the number of people who can go to the amusement park, the inequality that expresses the previous relationship is

$9.75 + $16.25×p ≤$65

Solving:

$16.25×p ≤$65 - $9.75

$16.25×p ≤$55.25

p ≤$55.25÷ $16.25

<u><em>p≤ 3.4</em></u>

Finally, the number of people who can go to the amusement park is 3.

Learn more about inequality:

brainly.com/question/17578702

brainly.com/question/25275758

brainly.com/question/14361489

brainly.com/question/1462764

#SPJ1

4 0
2 years ago
Prove that :( 1 + 1/<img src="https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=tan%5E%7B2%7DA" id="TexFormula1" title="tan^{2}A" alt="tan^{2}A" align="ab
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Answer:

See explanation

Step-by-step explanation:

Simplify left and right parts separately.

<u>Left part:</u>

\left(1+\dfrac{1}{\tan^2A}\right)\left(1+\dfrac{1}{\cot ^2A}\right)\\ \\=\left(1+\dfrac{1}{\frac{\sin^2A}{\cos^2A}}\right)\left(1+\dfrac{1}{\frac{\cos^2A}{\sin^2A}}\right)\\ \\=\left(1+\dfrac{\cos^2A}{\sin^2A}\right)\left(1+\dfrac{\sin^2A}{\cos^2A}\right)\\ \\=\dfrac{\sin^2A+\cos^2A}{\sin^2A}\cdot \dfrac{\cos^2A+\sin^A}{\cos^2A}\\ \\=\dfrac{1}{\sin^2A}\cdot \dfrac{1}{\cos^2A}\\ \\=\dfrac{1}{\sin^2A\cos^2A}

<u>Right part:</u>

\dfrac{1}{\sin^2A-\sin^4A}\\ \\=\dfrac{1}{\sin^2A(1-\sin^2A)}\\ \\=\dfrac{1}{\sin^2A\cos^2A}

Since simplified left and right parts are the same, then the equality is true.

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3 years ago
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kondaur [170]
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