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asambeis [7]
3 years ago
14

If equilibrium is achieved in a competitive market the deadweight loss will equal the sum of consumer surplus and producer surpl

us. the deadweight loss will be the same as the opportunity cost of the last unit of output sold. the deadweight loss will be maximized. there is no deadweight loss.
Business
1 answer:
marysya [2.9K]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

there is no deadweight loss.

Explanation:

In a perfect competition, there are many buyers and sellers of homogeneous products, and there is free entry and exit in the market.

This simply means that, in a perfectly competitive market, there are many buyers and sellers (price takers) of homogeneous products (standardized products with substitute) and the market is free (practically open) to all individuals or business entities that are willing to trade all their goods and services.

Generally, a perfectly competitive market is characterized by the following features;

1. Perfect information.

2. No barriers, it is typically free.

3. Equilibrium price and quantity.

4. Many buyers and sellers.

5. Homogeneous products.

Examples of a perfectly competitive market are the Agricultural sector, e-commerce and the foreign exchange market.

Hence, if equilibrium is achieved in a competitive market then, there is no deadweight loss i.e a loss of economic efficiency due to a lack of balance in competing economical influences for goods or services.

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Match the following definitons with appropriate options given in below:
Len [333]

Answer:

1. A graphical representation of the relationship between the price of a good and the amount of the good that buyers are willing and able to purchase at various prices.

-Demand Curve

2. The amount of a good that buyers are willing and able to purchase at a given price.

-Quantity Demanded

3. The claim that, other things being equal, the quantity demanded of a good falls when the price of that good rises.

-Law of Demand

4. A table showing the relationship between the price of a good and the amount that buyers are willing and able to purchase at various prices.

-Demand Schedule

Explanation:

5 0
3 years ago
Compound Interest:
MA_775_DIABLO [31]

Option answer:

d. Interest = $10.64 and New Balance = $360.64

Answer:

A = $360.64

A = P + I where

P (principal) = $350.00

I (interest) = $10.64

Calculation Steps:

First, convert R as a percent to r as a decimal

r = R/100

r = 1.5/100

r = 0.015 rate per year,

Then solve the equation for A

A = P(1 + r/n)nt

A = 350.00(1 + 0.015/4)(4)(2)

A = 350.00(1 + 0.00375)(8)

A = $360.64

Summary:

The total amount accrued, principal plus interest, with compound interest on a principal of $350.00 at a rate of 1.5% per year compounded 4 times per year over 2 years is $360.64.

7 0
2 years ago
Frank has just completed a study in which he gave a survey to each of 7,000 employees and their supervisors in a large bank. His
vovikov84 [41]

Answer:

The declaration is mostly accurate or correct.

Explanation:

  • Task success can be induced by work satisfaction. But that could also be accurate the opposite way round, i.e. work success affects employee satisfaction.
  • The inference reached here does not specify which incident seems to be the reason and which one is the trigger's consequence. A significant direct connection between the two can not be identified. Other than that, there could be other variables that may control the two variables.
8 0
3 years ago
You plan to save $1,400 for the next four years, beginning now, to pay for a vacation. If you can invest it at 6 percent annuall
vekshin1

Answer:

FV= $6,124.46

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

You plan to save $1,400 for the next four years, beginning now, to pay for a vacation. If you can invest it at 6 percent annually,

Annual deposit= $1,400

Number of periods= 4 years

Interest rate= 6%

<u>To calculate the future value, we need to use the following formula:</u>

FV= {A*[(1+i)^n-1]}/i

A= annual deposit

FV= {1,400*[(1.06^4) - 1]} / 0.06

FV= $6,124.46

6 0
3 years ago
Is 40 a prime number​
Nat2105 [25]

Answer: No, 40 is a composite number. :)

Explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
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