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bazaltina [42]
3 years ago
14

Principal Rate Time Interest Amount $ 720.00 6.00% 5 years a. $216.00 b. $936.00 720.00 6.00 5 months a. $18.00 b. $738.00 720.0

0 6.00 5 days b. 5,892.15 6.875 15 months b. 26,968.44 3.459 91 days b.​
Business
1 answer:
Komok [63]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

1- $216

2- $18

3- $0.59

4- $54

5- $10.77

Explanation:

1- If the investment lasts 5 years, with an interest of 6% and a principal of $ 720,00, the interest generated at the end of said investment arises from the following calculation:

(720 x 0.06) x 5 = X

43,20 x 5 = X

216 = X

Therefore, after 5 years of investment, they will have earned $ 216 in interest.

2- If the investment lasts 5 months, with an interest of 6% and a principal of $ 720, the interest generated at the end of said investment arises from the following calculation:

(720 x 0.06) / 12) x 5 = X

43.20 / 12 x 5 = X

3.6 x 5 = X

18 = X

Therefore, after 5 months of investment, they will have earned $ 18 in interest.

3- If the investment lasts 5 days, with an interest of 6% and a principal of $ 720, the interest generated at the end of said investment arises from the following calculation:

(720 x 0.06) / 365) x 5 = X

43.20 / 365 x 5 = X

0.118 x 5 = X

0.59 = X

Therefore, after 5 days of investment, $ 0.59 in interest will have been earned.

4- If the investment lasts 15 months, with an interest of 6% and a principal of $ 720, the interest generated at the end of said investment arises from the following calculation:

(720 x 0.06) / 12) x 15 = X

43.20 / 12 x 15 = X

3.6 x 15 = X

54 = X

Therefore, after 15 months of investment, they will have earned $ 54 in interest.

5- If the investment lasts 91 days, with an interest of 6% and a principal of $ 720, the interest generated at the end of said investment arises from the following calculation:

(720 x 0.06) / 365) x 91 = X

43.20 / 365 x 91 = X

0.118 x 91 = X

10.77 = X

Therefore, after 91 days of investment, you will have earned $ 10.77 in interest.

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LO 8.3What are some possible reasons for a direct labor time variance?
kifflom [539]

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "B": less qualified workers.

Explanation:

Direct labor rate variance analyses the current cost of direct labor and the regular cost of direct labor over the same operations period. Direct labor rate variance can be caused due to minimum wage increase, hiring less qualified employees or inappropriate cost budget setting.

5 0
3 years ago
The reasons for using the variable-cost approach include all of the following except this approach provides the most defensible
Ber [7]

Answer:

The reasons for using the variable-cost approach include all of the following except

this approach provides the most defensible bases for justifying prices to all interested parties.

Explanation:

This is not part of the reasons for using the variable-cost approach.  But options b, c, and d are certainly the reasons why the variable-cost approach is used.  The variable-cost approach provides a differential analysis for decision-making.  It assigns overhead costs to the period in which they are incurred, while other variable costs are assigned to the merchandise produced within that period.  Thus, by excluding fixed manufacturing overhead cost, only the direct costs associated with production are used in accounting for the product's costs.

3 0
3 years ago
Please list five words to describe your dominant culture. Please list five words to describe a culture with which you are not a
Karolina [17]
Dominant culture: male, white, middle-class, English speaking, heterosexual

Not a member of: Chinese, transgender, poverty, etc.
6 0
3 years ago
Dulce Corporation had 200,000 shares of common stock outstanding during the current year. There were also options for 10,000 sha
Nimfa-mama [501]

Answer:

$19.80

Explanation:

The Diluted EPS of Dulce Corporation shall be determined through the following mentioned formula:

Diluted EPS=Net income/Number of outstanding shares

Net income= $4 million

Number of outstanding shares=Common stock shares+shares issued for free due to share options

Common stock shares=200,000

shares issued for free due to share options=Number of options*Intrinsic value/market price of common shares

Number of options=10,000

Intrinsic value=market price-exercise price=$25-$20=$5

Shares exercised due to share options=10,000*5/25=2,000

Diluted EPS=$4,000,000/200,000+2,000

                   =$19.80

3 0
3 years ago
Last year Builtrite had retained earnings of $140,000. This year, Builtrite had true net profits after taxes of $65,000 which in
Butoxors [25]

Answer: $160,000

 

Explanation: Retained earnings can be defined as the amount pf earnings left with the company after taking into consideration all tyoes of dividends and taxes.

formula  :-

Retained earnings = previous retained earnings + net income - dividends to equity holders - dividends to preference holders

thus,

Retained earnings = $140,000 + $65,000 - $10,000 - $35,000

                                 = $160,000

4 0
3 years ago
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