1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
omeli [17]
3 years ago
10

Why did General Thomas Gage send soldiers to Lexington?

History
1 answer:
Tomtit [17]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

There were two reasons why General Thomas Gage (who was the governor of Massachusetts at the time) sent British troops to Lexington and Concord in April of 1775. ... Gage sent troops to Concord to find and confiscate the weapons. Second, Gage felt that he would be able to capture some Patriot leaders in this way.

You might be interested in
Shortly after the us victory in spanish american war us forces
seropon [69]
<span>I think you mean this, "Shortly after the United States victory in the Spanish-American War, U.S. forces _____." According to researches that I've read, the answer to your question would be "U.S. forces </span>fought against an insurrection in the Philippines".
6 0
3 years ago
1.  Which digestive organ is the last organ food passes through before reaching your stomach
wel
The answer is the <span>esophagus</span>
8 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Why did buzzing the field justify dismissal from the fighter pilot program?
UkoKoshka [18]

Answer:

j

Explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
What role did Europeans play in the economic and intellectual worlds of South and East Asia?
marusya05 [52]
Western imperialism in Asia involves the influence of people from Western Europe and associated states (such as Russia, Japan and the United States) in Asian territories and waters. Much of this process stemmed from the 15th-century search for trade routes to China that led directly to the Age of Discovery, and the introduction of early modern warfare into what Europeans first called the East Indies and later the Far East.
6 0
3 years ago
What is the difference between feudalism and manorialism?
Nataly [62]
Feudalism worked as a contract. it was centred on a personal relationship between lord and vassal. Manorialism describes the arrangement of the rural economy, with manors. 
4 0
3 years ago
Other questions:
  • The book was written in 1924 in the bavarian fortress of landsberg am lech, where hitler was imprisoned after the abortive beer
    5·2 answers
  • what was the name given to the trade system we're finished manufactured goods were sent to Africa in exchange for slaves who are
    7·1 answer
  • The Declaration of Independence marked a permanent break between the colonists and Great Britain. How is this historical documen
    10·1 answer
  • Which of these events is pre-Columbian? A.The Native American population reached 50 million people. B.The Spanish introduced hor
    13·2 answers
  • What is the historical context surrounding each of these documents ?
    14·1 answer
  • Article IV promises that the federal government will protect each state against
    14·1 answer
  • Why is gas warfare drawing so much attention?
    11·1 answer
  • What does the term manifest destiny imply?
    9·2 answers
  • Which liberation movements impacted the second half of the twentieth century, from about 1930 to 2000
    5·1 answer
  • By 1917, as a consequence of the "local option," three out of four Americans
    12·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!