The link is very good to explain what you need but something it forgot was needing to know about foreign pathways
<u>Answer:</u>
<em>If there is a major problem in a country that leads to the rapid withdrawal of foreign investment, this is known as International financial crisis
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<u>Explanation:</u>
The financial crisis was mainly brought about by deregulation in the budgetary business. That allowed banks to participate in support investments exchanging with subordinates. Banks, at that point, requested more home loans to help the productive clearance of these subordinates. They made intrigue credits that got moderate to subprime borrowers.
Big banks had the assets to become modern at the utilization of these convoluted subordinates. The money with the most muddled monetary items got the most cash flow.
Answer:
c. Net income will be overstated for the current year.
Explanation:
Depreciation is defined as the reduction in the value of an asset over the period of it's useful life.
The deductions are calculated and taken out of the asset value on the balance sheet.
The adjusting entry for depreciation at the end of year is a debit to Depreciation Expense and a credit to Accumulated depreciation.
If this entry is no passed it means that Depreciation Expense is not recognised for that year.
Net income will be overstated because generally expenses will be understated.
Answer:
11.15%
Explanation:
Given that
Risk free rate of return= 5%
Beta = 1.69
Expected rate of return = 15.4%
As per capital asset pricing model
Expected rate of return = Risk free rate of return + Beta × (Market rate of return - risk free rate of return)
15.4% = 5% + 1.69 × (Market rate of return - 5%)
After solving this
Market rate of return = 11.15%
Probably production function
