1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
Nana76 [90]
3 years ago
13

My salary is £28,860 per year. What is my hourly rate of pay if I work 37 hours a week

Mathematics
1 answer:
Nostrana [21]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

pay rate £7.80

Step-by-step explanation:

28860 divide by 37 = 780

780 divided by 100 = 7.80

You might be interested in
Assume that a company sold 5.75 million motorcycles and 3.5 million cars in the year 2010. The growth in the sale of motorcycles
OverLord2011 [107]

Answer:

Final answer is approx 6.644 years.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that a company sold 5.75 million motorcycles and 3.5 million cars in the year 2010. The growth in the sale of motorcycles is 16% every year and that of cars is 25% every year.

So we can use growth formula:

A=P\left(1+r\right)^t

Then we get equation for motorcycles and cars as:

A=5.75\left(1+0.16\right)^t

A=3.5\left(1+0.25\right)^t

Now we need to find about when the sale of cars will be more than the sale of motorcycles. So we get:

3.5\left(1+0.25\right)^t>5.75\left(1+0.16\right)^t

3.5\left(1.25\right)^t>5.75\left(1.16\right)^t

3.5\left(1.25\right)^t>5.75\left(1.16\right)^t

\frac{\left(1.25\right)^t}{\left(1.16\right)^t}>\frac{5.75}{3.5}

\left(\frac{1.25}{1.16}\right)^t>1.64285714286

t\cdot\ln\left(\frac{1.25}{1.16}\right)>\ln\left(1.64285714286\right)

t>\frac{\ln\left(1.64285714286\right)}{\ln\left(\frac{1.25}{1.16}\right)}

t>6.6436473051

Hence final answer is approx 6.644 years.

7 0
3 years ago
What is an expression equivalent to 4d-4?
hoa [83]

4(d-1), if you expand it gets 4d-4.


8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Rationalize the numerator
julsineya [31]

Answer:

It is about 1.2

Hope it helps

4 0
3 years ago
A research study uses 800 men under the age of 55. Suppose that 30% carry a marker on the male chromosome that indicates an incr
ss7ja [257]

Answer:

a) There is a 12.11% probability that exactly 1 man has the marker.

b) There is a 85.07% probability that more than 1 has the marker.

Step-by-step explanation:

There are only two possible outcomes: Either the men has the chromosome, or he hasn't. So we use the binomial probability distribution.

Binomial probability

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.\pi^{x}.(1-\pi)^{n-x}

In which C_{n,x} is the number of different combinatios of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

And \pi is the probability of X happening.

In this problem, we have that:

30% carry a marker on the male chromosome that indicates an increased risk for high blood pressure, so \pi = 0.30

(a) If 10 men are selected randomly and tested for the marker, what is the probability that exactly 1 man has the marker?

10 men, so n = 10

We want to find P(X = 1). So:

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.\pi^{x}.(1-\pi)^{n-x}

P(X = 1) = C_{10,1}.(0.30)^{1}.(0.7)^{9} = 0.1211

There is a 12.11% probability that exactly 1 man has the marker.

(b) If 10 men are selected randomly and tested for the marker, what is the probability that more than 1 has the marker?

That is P(X > 1)

We have that:

P(X \leq 1) + P(X > 1) = 1

P(X > 1) = 1 - P(X \leq 1)

We also have that:

P(X \leq 1) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1)

P(X = 0) = C_{10,0}.(0.30)^{0}.(0.7)^{10} = 0.0282

So

P(X \leq 1) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) = 0.0282 + 0.1211 = 0.1493

Finally

P(X > 1) = 1 - P(X \leq 1) = 1 - 0.1493 = 0.8507

There is a 85.07% probability that more than 1 has the marker.

3 0
3 years ago
Using bangle side relationship theorem use the angle measures to list the side lengths of the triangle in order from longest to
scoray [572]

Answer:

AC= longest side

BC=middle side

AB=shortest side

Step-by-step explanation:

there is 180 degrees in a triangle, therefore

95+50=145

180-145=35

so we have angles 95, 50, 30

and we know that the side opposites with the angle corresponds to how big the side will be compared to the other sides

Therefore,

AC= longest side

BC=middle side

AB=shortest side

6 0
3 years ago
Other questions:
  • Help with questions 15. Please i need it ASAP ‼️‼️‼️‼️
    10·1 answer
  • 6 1/2 - 7/8 : 5 11/16
    14·1 answer
  • Two similar pyramids have base areas of 12.2 cm2 and 16 cm2. The surface area of the larger pyramid is 56 cm2. What is the surfa
    8·2 answers
  • A can of juice has a radius of 7 inches and a height of 8 inches. What is the volume of the can?
    15·1 answer
  • Across how many lines of reflection can you reflection can you reflect a square onto itself
    12·1 answer
  • (1,5), (9,85), (2,10),(6,38),(4,3),(12,107),(7,64), (12,86) ,(7,47), (9,64), (4,27) The line is in the form y=mx+b.y=mx+b. What
    15·1 answer
  • What percentage of total hours was spent playing soccer
    5·1 answer
  • Write y = 2x + 8 in standard form.​
    8·1 answer
  • PLEASE HELP ME!!!!!!!!!
    7·1 answer
  • Ami has a mass of 72 kg.
    5·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!