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In-s [12.5K]
3 years ago
15

What is y=-2x+1 y=-x^2+4

Mathematics
1 answer:
vesna_86 [32]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:X1=1+-1+i(2)^1/2

x2=-1-i(2)^1/2

Step-by-step explanation

y=y

-2x+1=-x^2+4

x^2+4+2x-1=0

x^2+2x+3=0

Use

Ax^2+Bx+C=0

X1,X2=[-B+(B^2-4*A*C)^1/2]/2*A

A=1

B=2

C=3

x=[-2+/-(2*2-12)^1/2]/2

x=[-2+/-(-8`)^1/2]/2

x=[-2+/-2i(2)^1/2]/2

x1=-1+i(2)^1/2

x2=-1-i(2)^1/2

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I am have trouble with these x-intercepts. Please help me.​
kotegsom [21]

Answer:

  1. x=8, x=2
  2. no solution
  3. no solution

Step-by-step explanation:

For the equation ...

  y = a(x -h)² +k

you can find the x-intercepts by setting y=0 and solving for x.

  0 = a(x -h)² +k

  -k = a(x -h)² . . . . . . subtract k

  -k/a = (x -h)² . . . . . divide by a

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__

So, for each of your problems, fill in the corresponding numbers and do the arithmetic. If (-k/a) is a negative number, the square root gives imaginary values, so there is "no solution".

1.  x = 5 ± √9 = {5 -3, 5 +3} = {2, 8} . . . . the x-intercepts are 2 and 8

2.  x = -3 ± √(-2) . . . . . . no solution; the roots are complex

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A bank in the Bay area is considering a training program for its staff. The probability that a new training program will increas
WITCHER [35]

Answer:

P(B' \cup A') = P((A \cap B)') = 1-P(A \cap B)= 1-0.32=0.68

See explanation below.

Step-by-step explanation:

For this case we define first some notation:

A= A new training program will increase customer satisfaction ratings

B= The training program can be kept within the original budget allocation

And for these two events we have defined the following probabilities

P(A) = 0.8, P(B) = 0.2

We are assuming that the two events are independent so then we have the following propert:

P(A \cap B ) = P(A) * P(B)

And we want to find the probability that the cost of the training program is not kept within budget or the training program will not increase the customer ratings so then if we use symbols we want to find:

P(B' \cup A')

And using the De Morgan laws we know that:

(A \cap B)' = A' \cup B'

So then we can write the probability like this:

P(B' \cup A') = P((A \cap B)')

And using the complement rule we can do this:

P(B' \cup A') = P((A \cap B)')= 1-P(A \cap B)

Since A and B are independent we have:

P(A \cap B )=P(A)*P(B) =(0.8*0.4) =0.32

And then our final answer would be:

P(B' \cup A') = P((A \cap B)') = 1-P(A \cap B)= 1-0.32=0.68

5 0
3 years ago
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