It's b)
you can test it by multiplying 6 by 4
Answer:
the probability that a code word contains exactly one zero is 0.0064 (0.64%)
Step-by-step explanation:
Since each bit is independent from the others , then the random variable X= number of 0 s in the code word follows a binomial distribution, where
p(X)= n!/((n-x)!*x!*p^x*(1-p)^(n-x)
where
n= number of independent bits=5
x= number of 0 s
p= probability that a bit is 0 = 0.8
then for x=1
p(1) = n*p*(1-p)^(n-1) = 5*0.8*0.2^4 = 0.0064 (0.64%)
therefore the probability that a code word contains exactly one zero is 0.0064 (0.64%)
Answer:
33, 77
Step-by-step explanation:
-3. 1 5 9 13 17 21 25 29 33 37 41 45 49 53 57 61 65 69 73 77
To divide fractions, firstly, you need to turn the 2nd fraction upside down. For example, 3/8 divided by 3/4 would be 3/8 divided by 4/3. After you have flipped the second fraction, you multiply them - 3*4 = 12. 8*3 = 24 so the answer would be 12/24. Which then could be cancelled down to 1/2. I hope this makes sense!!
8175 because the 3 percent of 3 years is 675