Answer:
PV= $9,626.49
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Cash flow= $1,500
Interest rate= 9%
Number of years= 10
First, we will determine the future value, using the following formulas:
FV= {A*[(1+i)^n-1]}/i
A= cash flow
FV= {1,500*[(1.09^10) - 1]} / 0.09
FV= $22,789.395
Now, the present value:
PV=FV/(1+i)^n
PV= 22,789.395/(1.09^10)
PV= $9,626.49
Answer:
B. $1,500 F
Explanation:
Flexible Planning Activity
Budget Budget Variance
Customer served (q) 17 20
Travel expense ($500q) $8,500 $10,000 $1,500 (Favorable)
Workings
<u>Travel Expense </u>at 500q
Flexible budget = 500 * (17) = $8,500
Planning budget = 500 * (20) = $10,000
Answer: b) Loss of $7,500,000.
Explanation:
The total the investment bank paid when underwriting was:
= 10.50 * 10,000,000 shares
= $105,000,000
The total they then sell to the public is:
= 9.75 * 10,000,000
= $97,500,000
The profit is:
= Selling revenue from public - Buying cost from company
= 97,500,000 - 105,000,000
= -$7,500,000
Answer:
$67,000
Explanation:
The total revenue will be income from the 300 rooms and that from 100 rooms
=(300 x $140) + ($100 x 250)
=$42,000 +$25,000
=$67,000
Answer:
The correct answer is: Retaining a higher percentage of earnings will result in a lower growth rate.; Long-run earnings growth will decrease when firms retain earnings and reinvest them in the business.
Explanation:
In the first statement, a deliberate action is shown that consists of the capitalization of the entity, that is, the equity is accumulated in order to distribute it among the shareholders and leave a part to support the company. In the second statement, it means that the positive results of the company will not be seen in the long term due to management's dispositions to execute a policy to capitalize the entity and improve its cash flow by reinvesting the perceived resources.
