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antoniya [11.8K]
3 years ago
8

Answer choices 192m to the 2nd power, 25m to the 2nd power 177 ft to the 2nd power 242 inches to the second power 61 ft to the 2

nd power 40 inches to the 2nd powe

Mathematics
2 answers:
Leona [35]3 years ago
6 0

40m to the 2nd power when doing the math its 40m to the 2nd power and then you get ur answer :)

hram777 [196]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

i got 61 ft2

Step-by-step explanation:

rectangle: 10 x 4=40

triangle: 7 x 6=42 x 1/2= 21

40+21=61

also its says ft in each measurement

61 ft to the second power (61 ft2)

-kenma #3

(hopefully im right this time)

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valentinak56 [21]

Answer:

b

Step-by-step explanation:

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Which of the following is equivalent to 2/9
iragen [17]

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B would be the answer:))

Step-by-step explanation:

Divide 2 by 9

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zheka24 [161]

Solution :

$n_1=178, \hat p_1 = 0.48$

$n_2=427, \hat p_2 = 0.38$

$\hat p_1=\frac{x_1}{n_1}$

$x_1=n_1 \hat p_1$

   = 178 x 0.48

   = 85.44

    ≈ 85

$x_2=n_2 \hat p_2$

   = 427 x 0.38

   = 162.26

    ≈ 162

a). Yes, the sample sizes are large enough to use the large sample confidence interval so as to estimate the difference in the population proportions.

Let $\hat p_1 = 0.48, \ \ \hat p_2 = 0.38, n_1 = 178 \ \ n_2 = 427$

Where the $\text{subscript indicates}$ the age $18-29$ group and the 2 - subscript indicates the age $50-64$ group.

Since $n_1 \hat p_1 = 85.44$

$n_1(1- \hat p_1)=92.56, \ \ n_2\hat p_2 = 162.26, \ n_2(1-\hat p_2) = 264.74 $

are  all at least 10, the sample sizes are large enough to use the large sample confidence interval.

$P_0=\frac{x_1+x_2}{n_1+n_2}$

   $=\frac{85.44+162.26}{178+427}$

  = 0.409421

$P_0 = 0.4074$

$Q_0=1-P_0$

     = 1 - 0.4094

     = 0.5906

b). 90% confidence interval is

  $=\left( \hat p_1- \hat p_2 \pm \frac{z \alpha}{2} \times \sqrt{P_0Q_0\left(\frac{1}{n_1}+\frac{1}{n_2}}\right) \right)$

  $=\left( 0.48-0.38 \pm \frac{z \times 0.10}{2} \times \sqrt{0.4094 \times 0.5906\left(\frac{1}{178}+\frac{1}{427}}\right) \right)$

 $=(0.1 \pm z 0.05 \times 0.04387082)$

 $=(0.1 \pm 1.64 \times 0.0439)$

 $=(0.1 - 0.071996, 0.1+0.071996)$

 $=(0.028004, 0.171996)$

 $=(0.0280, 0.1720)$

c). Zero is not included in the confidence interval. Answer is no. The difference in the two population proportion are different from each other.

5 0
3 years ago
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prohojiy [21]
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4 years ago
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Pls help me with this question and explain how you got the answer!!!!!
Luba_88 [7]

Answer:

-87

Step-by-step explanation:

So, first to find <em>x</em> you need to subtract 121 from 180. You do this because both the angle which measures 121 degrees and <em>x</em> lie on the same line, and since a line has an angle measure of 180, you do 180-121 to find <em>x</em>. The same thing can be done for <em>y</em>. Since the angle measure of 34 degrees and y lie on the same line you can calculate 180-34 to get <em>y. </em>So, let's do that.

180-121=x

59=x

180-34=y

146=y

Once you've done that you can easily subtract the two and get your answer.

x-y

substitute the answer for the variables and get

59-146

and then your answer is

-87

4 0
3 years ago
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