Answer:
$20,441.67
Explanation:
the present value of your house is $200,000, its future value = $200,000 x (1 + 5%)¹⁰ = $325,778.93
you can earn a 10% annual interest rate for 10 years, that means that we can use a future value of an annuity factor = 15.937
your annual investment = future value of the house / annuity factor = $325,778.93 / 15.937 = $20,441.67
 
        
             
        
        
        
Answer:  Debit Bad debt expense $11,264, Credit Allowance for bad debt $11,264; Debit Allowance for bad debt $9,650, Credit Accounts receivable $9,650.
Explanation: Percentage of credit sales method means bad debt expense expressed as a percentage of sales. 
The estimated bad debts rate is 2.2%, which translates to 2.2% of $512,000 (credit sales) = $11,264. The firm has to record this, being the estimated bad debts rate, as Debit to bad debt expense and Credit to allowance for bad debt. However, accounts receivable that was deemed uncollectible is $9,650. This amount would be taken out from the buffer in allowance account by debiting allowance for bad debt and crediting accounts receivable.
 
        
             
        
        
        
The financial meltdown of 2008 was in part due to <u>quants </u>demonstrating the dangers of relying too heavily on the quantitative techniques of scientific management.
<h3>How did the financial meltdown of 2008 happen?</h3>
There were several reasons for the financial meltdown that the United States saw in 2008 and one of them was the overreliance on Quants. 
Quants were quantitative models that were used to decide on the financial assets to invest in. They failed to predict the risks associated with Mortgage Backed Securities and this contributed in part to the meltdown. 
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The interest rate that should be used when evaluating a capital investment project is sometimes called the appropriate discount rate and cost of capital. 
The cost of capital refers to the minimum rate of return needed from an investment to make it worthwhile, whereas the discount rate is the rate used to discount the future cash flows from an investment to the present value to determine if an investment will be profitable. Appropriate Discount Rate means, at any time, the real (i.e., not inflation adjusted) weighted average cost of capital (after taxes payable by the concession business).
Cost of Capital = (Risk-Free Rate of Return + Credit Spread) × (1 – Tax Rate)
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Answer:
Indirect and fixed
Explanation:
Indirect costs are those cost which cannot be directly attributable to any product.
Fixed costs are those which remains the same in the period whatever the level of activity (production, sales etc.) is. It does not vary with the change in the activity level.
Supervisor salaries cannot be traceable directly to any specific product, so it is considered as the indirect cost. As the Salaries are fixed payments made on monthly or annually basis, So it is also classified as the fixed cost.