Answer:
Part 1) m∠EFG=94°
Part 2) m∠GFH=86°
Step-by-step explanation:
we know that
m∠EFG+m∠GFH=180° -----> by linear pair (given problem)
we have
m∠EFG=3n+22
m∠GFH=2n+38
substitute the values
(3n+22)°+(2n+38)°=180°
Solve for n
(5n+60)=180
5n=180-60
5n=120
n=24
<em>Find the measure of angle EFG</em>
m∠EFG=3n+22
substitute the value of n
m∠EFG=3(24)+22=94°
<em>Find the measure of angle GFH</em>
m∠GFH=2n+38
substitute the value of n
m∠GFH=2(24)+38=86°
Answer:
The x-intercept is x = -2, and the graph approaches a vertical asymptote at x = -3.
Step-by-step explanation:
The given graph is a transformed logarithm function.
The graph is obtained by shifting the parent function three units left.
The vertical asymptote is now

The x-intercept is where the graph intersect the x-axis, which is x=-2
Therefore the last option is correct.
Answer:
$54.51
Step-by-step explanation:
an easier way to do this is simply by multiplying 47.40x115%, which is 54.51.
another way to do this is by multiplying 47.40x15%, which is 7.11, then you'll have to added to 47.4, which gives you the same answer of 54.51
Answer:
x = 10
Explanation:
Note the following rules before we begin:
2 ln(a) = ln (a²)
ln (a) + ln (b) = ln (ab)
Now, for the given:
ln(20) + ln(5) = 2 ln(x)
ln(20*5) = ln(x²)
ln(100) = ln(x²)
This means that:
100 = x²
Therefore:
either x = 10 .........> acceped
or x = -10 .........> rejected as no negatives are allowed within ln functions
Hope this helps :)
Answer:
And we can find the individual probabilities:
And replacing we got:
Step-by-step explanation:
Previous concepts
The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".
Solution to the problem
Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:
The probability associated to a failure would be p =1-0.09 = 0.91
The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:
Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:
And we want to find this probability:
And we can find the individual probabilities:
And replacing we got: