1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
katen-ka-za [31]
3 years ago
7

Why did Egypt sell their “shares' ( partial ownership) of the Suez Canal to England?

History
1 answer:
olga_2 [115]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:First, Britain took partial control of the canal in 1875.  This happened because the ruler of Egypt was in serious financial difficulties.  He owned a large bloc of shares in the canal and sold them off to take care of his debt.  This gave the British partial control of the canal, but they still did not have complete control of it because the majority of the shares were owned by the French.

Second, in 1882, Britain essentially took control of Egypt as a whole.  This time, they came at the request of the ruler of Egypt (the son of the ruler who sold the shares).  The ruler of Egypt was faced with rebellions from within the country.  He asked the British to come in and give him military help in resisting the rebellions.  Once there, the British stayed and essentially occupied Egypt.  This gave them control over the canal.

Explanation:

You might be interested in
Did I get this right?
AnnyKZ [126]
Yes you did c was the right answer
5 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
FIRST CORRECT ANSWER GETS BRAINLIEST
timurjin [86]

Answer:

b. independent

Explanation:

(happy to help)

6 0
3 years ago
"Husband, wife and prepubescent children, if they are all under the same master, may not be taken and sold separately. We declar
son4ous [18]

Answer:

Summarize this in simple words. If you intend to sale one male slave for 20 dallors and family would provide a price of 30 dallors. You would lose 10 dallors on the sale.

Explanation:

Now slave owners of blacks would usually without letter of the law trade under the table and the law would have no way to track these sales. This was formal right of sell to protect families trying to be separated. I believe later on in US history this law is abolished or dissolved. Of course very few blacks could read or write and had no position to fight law written for the sale of his property. There are few cases in US history that did win these legal battles. They are more like a needle in hay stack.

3 0
3 years ago
A mixed economy is
Natali5045456 [20]
<span>C.mixed economy but became a market economy by reducing government laws

Hope this helps!</span>
6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
What was a focus of Russian Industrialization?
ryzh [129]

Answer:

Russia industrialized via textile and steel industry.

Explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Other questions:
  • European settlers often associated American Indians with _____ stereotypes. One such stereotype was that American Indians were
    9·1 answer
  • The Mexican-American War _________________
    15·2 answers
  • Which of the following describes a reform of the 1820s that made voting easier? the number of polling places increased. the secr
    12·2 answers
  • What is one of japans main islands
    12·2 answers
  • He was the public safety commissioner of birmingham, alabama, in the 1960s, becoming a symbol of bigotry and police brutality wh
    6·1 answer
  • Industry was the focus of the economy of which region in the colonies?
    11·1 answer
  • How did military leaders prevent democracy in Brazil? Check all that apply.
    7·2 answers
  • Which two legal factors supported and created segregation in the united states
    10·2 answers
  • "The Constitution says federal laws are the supreme law of the land, so the federal government could just take complete control
    15·1 answer
  • Which statement best describes the relationship between farmers and miners on the great plains?
    11·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!