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monitta
3 years ago
13

The risk premium for common stocks

Business
1 answer:
Brrunno [24]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

D

Explanation:

Risk premium is the compensation given to investors for holding risky assets. The more risky an asset is, the higher the premium.

A rational investor would be unwilling to invest in a stock that offers zero premium because there is no compensation for the risk that is borne by the investor.

Risk premium is always positive.

Risk premium = expected rate of return of the asset - expected rate of return of the risk free asset.

The more risky the asset, the higher the expected rate of return. So, the expected rate of return of the asset would always be higher than the risk free rate. This makes risk premium positive

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Provide responses to the following questions 1. What is the purpose of a staffing management plan? What does it address?
ryzh [129]

Answer:

Explained below:

Explanation:

A staffing management plan refers to the plan produced to help businesses primarily identify and later procure the workers at all levels and in all departments of the business organization. The purposes of a staffing management plan to :  

Classify staffing needs.

Build timelines.

Establish funds considerations.

Devise and implement talent acquisition strategies.

Construct and execute an on boarding schedule.

Identify and design suitable training bodies and methods.

Follow the plan until it reaches effectiveness.

It addresses the requirements of the organization in many ways, depending upon its business model, its structure, and the system in which it finishes projects and reaches deadlines.

4 0
4 years ago
The following is a partial trial balance for the Green Star Corporation as of December 31, 2021:
Vinil7 [7]

Answer and Explanation:

The presentation of the income statement is presented below:

Income statement

Revenues and gains:  

Sales revenue          1,400,000

Add: Interest revenue       35,000

Add: Gain on sale of investment    55,000

Total revenues and gains      1,490,000

Less:

Expenses and losses:  

Cost of goods sold    740,000  

General and administrative expenses 80,000  

Selling expenses   185,000  

Interest expense    45,000  

Total expenses and losses     1,050,000

Income before income tax       440,000

Income tax expense     - 135,000

Net income    305,000

EPS = Net income ÷ Number of common shares

                  ($305,000 ÷ 100,000)  3.05

2.

Income statement

Sales            1,400,000

Less: Cost of goods sold - $740,000

Gross profit      660,000

Less:

Operating expenses:  

General and administrative expenses $80,000  

Selling expenses $185,000  

Total operating expenses  -$265,000

Operating income $395,000

Other incomes and expenses  

Interest revenue  $35,000  

Gain on sale of investment $55,000  

Interest expense  -$45,000  

Total other income, net  $45,000

Less: Income before income tax $440,000

Income tax expense -$135,000

Net income $305,000

EPS = Net income ÷ Number of common shares

(305,000 ÷ 100,000)  3.05

7 0
3 years ago
Curtain Co. paid dividends of $10,000, $12,500, and $14,000 during Year 1, Year 2, and Year 3, respectively. The company had 2,1
4vir4ik [10]

Answer:

Total amound paid to shareholder in 3rd year = $1850

Explanation:

Below is the calculation:

Total dividend paid = 1st year divident  + 2nd year divident + 3rd year dividend

Total dividend paid = $10000 + 12500 + 14000

Total dividend paid = $36500

Total preferred dividend = (2100 x 100) x 5.5% x 3

Total preferred dividend = $34650

Total amount of dividend paid to shareholder during 3rd year = 36500 - 34650 = $1850

Total amound paid to shareholder in 3rd year = $1850

8 0
3 years ago
Comparing Three Depreciation Methods
exis [7]

Answer:

1.a

2013 Depreciation

Straight line method $71,250

Units-of-output $102,600

Double declining balance $160,000

2014 Depreciation

Straight line method $71,250

Units-of-output $91,200

Double declining balance $80,000

2015 Depreciation

Straight line method $71,250

Units-of-output $62,700

Double declining balance $40,000

2016 Depreciation

Straight line method $71,250

Units-of-output $28,500

Double declining balance $20,000

1.B Total Depreciation in 4 years

Straight line method $285,000

Units-of-output $285,000

Double declining balance $300,000

2. Double declining balance yields the highest depreciation expense for 2013

3. Double declining balance yields the highest depreciation expense over the FOUR-year life of an equipment

Explanation:

1.A In computing straight line method, the formula would be:

(cost of equipment - salvage value) / life of equipment

2013

(320,000 - 35,000) / 4 years = 71,250

2014

(320,000 - 35,000) / 4 years = 71,250

2015

(320,000 - 35,000) / 4 years = 71,250

2016

(320,000 - 35,000) / 4 years = 71,250

TOTAL DEPRECIATION IN 4 YEAR LIFE OF EQUIPMENT = $285,000 ($71,250 + $71,250 + $71,250 + $71,250)

<em>UNITS-OF-OUTPUT METHOD</em>

Formula: (Cost of equipment - salvage value) / total operating hours of equipment x operating hours used for the year

2013

($320,000 - 35,000) / 20,000 x 7,200

($285,000 / 20,000) x 7,200

14.25 per hour x 7,200 =$102,600

2014

($320,000 - 35,000) / 20,000 x 6,400

($285,000 / 20,000) x 6,400

14.25 per hour x 6,400 =$91,200

2015

$320,000 - 35,000) / 20,000 x 4,400

($285,000 / 20,000) x 4,400

14.25 per hour x 4,400 =$62,700

2016

($320,000 - 35,000) / 20,000 x 2,000

($285,000 / 20,000) x 2,000

14.25 per hour x 2,000 =$28,500

TOTAL DEPRECIATION IN 3 YEAR LIFE OF EQUIPMENT = $285,000 ($102,600 + $91,200 + $62,700 + $28,500)

DOUBLE DECLINING BALANCE

Formula: 100%/life of equipment x 2

*residual value will not be considered in this method of computation of depreciation expense.

2013

100% / 4 years x 2 = 50%

$320,000 x 50% = $160,000

2014

100% / 4 years x 2 = 50%

$320,000 - $160,000 =$160,000

$160,000 x 50% = $80,000

2015

100% / 4 years x 2 = 50%

$320,000 - ($160,000 + $80,000) = $80,000

$80,000 x 50% = $40,000

2016

100% / 4 years x 2 = 50%

$320,000 - ($160,000 + $80,000 + $40,000) = $40,000

$40,000 x 50% = $20,000

TOTAL DEPRECIATION IN 3 YEAR LIFE OF EQUIPMENT = $300,000 ($160,000 + $80,000 + $40,000 + $20,000)

2. Double declining method yields the highest depreciation expense in 2013 in the amount of $160,000 as computed above.

3. The method that yields most depreciation over the four-year life of an equipment is the DOUBLE DECLINING METHOD in a total amount of $300,000.

5 0
4 years ago
Which of the following does not represent an asset of a company?
mariarad [96]

Answer:

4. Amounts owed to suppliers

Explanation:

We know that

Balance sheet comprises of assets, liabilities and the stockholder equity

The assets could be classified into current asset, fixed asset, and the intangible assets

While the liabilities are also classified into current liabilities and the long term liabilities  

The account receivable, equipment, supplies have come on the asset side of the balance sheet whereas the account payable or amount owed to suppliers have come on the liabilities side of the balance sheet

So, the most appropriate option is 4.

3 0
3 years ago
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