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Helen [10]
3 years ago
8

What is the range of the two points on the graph?

Mathematics
1 answer:
Olegator [25]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

i nee dpoints, so sry.

Step-by-step explanation:

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Solve pls brainliest
BigorU [14]
Have a great day!!!!

7 0
2 years ago
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if you divide a positive number by 12, the answer would be less than the original number? always, sometimes, or never​
elena55 [62]

Answer:

Always

Step-by-step explanation:

The rules for positive numbers is that addition and multiplication makes numbers larger. Subtraction and division makes numbers smaller.

Since 12 is a positive number, the result of dividing a positive number by 12 will make it smaller.

8 0
4 years ago
Question 3 (1 point)
Virty [35]

Answer:

The answer to your question is (4, 6)

Step-by-step explanation:

Data

E ( 9 , 7 )

F ( - 1, 5)

Formula

Xm = \frac{x1 + x2}{2}

Ym = \frac{y1 + y2}{2}

Substitution and simplification

Xm = \frac{9 -1}{2}

Xm = \frac{8}{2}

      Xm = 4

Ym = \frac{7 + 5}{2}

Ym = \frac{12}{2}

      Ym = 6

Result

            (4 , 6)  

7 0
4 years ago
he number of surface flaws in plastic panels used in the interior of automobiles has a Poisson distribution with a mean of 0.02
Yakvenalex [24]

Answer:

a) 98.01%

b) 13.53\%

c) 27.06%

Step-by-step explanation:

Since a car has 10 square feet of plastic panel, the expected value (mean) for a car to have one flaw is 10*0.02 = 0.2  

If we call P(k) the probability that a car has k flaws then, as P follows a Poisson distribution with mean 0.2,

P(k)= \frac{0.2^ke^{-0.2}}{k!}

a)

In this case, we are looking for P(0)

P(0)= \frac{0.2^0e^{-0.2}}{0!}=e^{-0.2}=0.9801=98.01\%

So, the probability that a car has no flaws is 98.01%

b)

Ten cars have 100 square feet of plastic panel, so now the mean is 100*0.02 = 2 flaws every ten cars.

Now P(k) is the probability that 10 cars have k flaws and  

P(k)= \frac{2^ke^{-2}}{k!}

and  

P(0)= \frac{2^0e^{-2}}{0!}=0.1353=13.53\%

And the probability that 10 cars have no flaws is 13.53%

c)

Here, we are looking for P(1) with P defined as in b)

P(1)= \frac{2^1e^{-2}}{1!}=2e^{-2}=0.2706=27.06\%

Hence, the probability that at most one car has no flaws is 27.06%

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The area of a triangle is the product of the base of the triangle times the height of the triangle, divided by two.
Natali [406]

Answer:

A = (1/2)(base)(height)

Step-by-step explanation:

Yes, that's correct:

A = (1/2)(base)(height)

Was there more to this question?

3 0
3 years ago
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