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RoseWind [281]
3 years ago
5

Factor completely. 4x^2 - 1

Mathematics
1 answer:
SVEN [57.7K]3 years ago
6 0
The answer should be on Photomath
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if one card is drawn from a standard 52 card playing deck, determine the probability of getting a ten, a king or a diamond.
IceJOKER [234]
To find the answer:

The probability of getting a ten:

=4/52

The probability of getting a king:

=4/52

The probability of getting a diamond:

=52×1/4
=13/52

However,there would be king and ten of diamond which overlapped and therefore -2/52 would be in the equation.

We can then sum up to find the equation:

=4/52+4/52+13/52-2/52
=21/52-2/52
=19/52

Therefore the answer is 19/52.

Hope it helps!
4 0
3 years ago
It takes Fred 32 minutes to type and spell check 5 pages of a manuscript. Find how long it takes
sveta [45]

Answer:

26

Step-by-step explanation:

we \: rounded \: it \: to \: the \: nearest \: whole \: number

6 0
2 years ago
5 1/2 x 3 3/4 please help
Svetach [21]

Answer:

5 1/2 is also known as 11/2 and 3 3/4 is also know as 15/4. Now times 11/2 x 15/4. 165/8 is the answer i think

Step-by-step explanation:

you make everything an improper fraction then times it

3 0
2 years ago
What is the value of <img src="https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20a_%7B1%7D%20" id="TexFormula1" title=" a_{1} " alt=" a_{1} " align="ab
julia-pushkina [17]
The correct awnser is a or c i hope i helped
8 0
3 years ago
a pitcher contains 40 fluid ounces of iced tea. Shelby pours 3 cups of iced tea. how many pints of iced tea are left?
lord [1]
Given;
40 fluid ounces of iced tea.

We know,
1 cup = 8 fluid ounce
1 pint = 2 cup

Now,
8 fluid ounce = 1 cup
1 fluid ounce = 1 / 8 cup
40 fluid ounce = (1 / 8) * 40 cup
So, 40 fluid ounce = 5 cup

Now,
We, used 3 cups of iced tea. So, we only have 2 cups of iced tea left.

We have,
2 cups = 1 pint

So, 1 pint of iced tea is left!


4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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