Answer:
a. 1.096
Explanation:
The present value index is the same as the profitablility index(PI), which is computed by dividing the present value of future cash inflows by the initial investment(the present value of cash outflows). A profitability of above 1 means that the project is viable as the numerator(PV of cash inflows) exceeds the denominator( initial cash outlay).
Project A PI index= Present value of cash inflows/Present value of cash outflows
Project A PI index= $84,360/$77,000
Project A PI index= 1.096
Answer:
1. A basic finding of labor economics is that workers who have more experience in the labor force are paid more than workers who have less experience (holding constant the amount of formal education). True
2. This might be the case because people with more experience have usually had more on-the-job training. True
3. Some studies have also found that experience at the same job (called job tenure) has an extra positive influence on wages. Job tenure is valuable because people gain <u>job-specific knowledge</u> that is useful to the firm.
Explanation:
A worker with more experience means more on-the-job training, this drastically increases the worker's value of the marginal product of labor.
Answer:
The correct answer is $0
Explanation:
Solution
An Impairment loss recognized when a book value of reporting company is more than its fair value, In the given example, the book value is not more than its fair value or higher than the value, hence the amount of the impairment loss that Antle Inc would record for goodwill at the end of 2021 is: Impairment loss is $0
Answer:
How much money will you need to have at the moment you retire?
How much money do you need to save every year before retirement?
Explanation:
we have to first determine the amount of money you need to finance your retirement distributions:
using the annuity due present value formula, PV = annuity payment x annuity due factor (PV, 8%, n = 40)
PV = $100,000 x 12.87858 = $1,287,858
now we must use the ordinary annuity future value formula, FV = annuity payment x annuity factor (FV, 8%, n = 40)
annuity payment = FV / annuity factor = $1,287,858 / 259.057 = $4,971.33
Answer:
The correct option is these statements are true
Explanation:
Margin of safety is the measure of the reduction in sales that needs to be recorded before a company makes no profit,invariably the difference the planned sales volume and the sales volume required to break even(makes no profit no loss).
The margin of safety can be expressed in volume,say 100 units of a product,in dollar terms ,say each product sells for $100 each,the margin of safety becomes $10,000($100*100) and can also be expressed in percentage terms depending on the way management wants it stated.
