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xenn [34]
2 years ago
14

according to the declaration of independence,when do people have the right to overthrow their government ​

History
1 answer:
nexus9112 [7]2 years ago
3 0

Answer: That whenever any Form of Government becomes destructive of these ends, it is the right of the People to alter or to abolish it, and to institute new Government, laying its foundation on such principles, and organizing its powers in such form, as to them shall seem most likely to effect their Safety and Happiness.

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Ano ang kauna-unahang iginawad sa babaeng piloto sa serbisyo​
damaskus [11]

Answer:

Ok

Explanation:

5 0
3 years ago
How is the humble plow, one of the most important inventions in history, is important to farmers? Select all correct responses.
Monica [59]
It turns the top soil and any remains crop over, producing fertilizer. It breaks up the soil for easier planting. By turning over the soil, weeds are reduced. Hope this helped!
7 0
3 years ago
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Minor parties play the "spoiler" role in elections by
tamaranim1 [39]

Answer:

Spoiler effect

Explanation:

"Minor parties are able to play a "spoiler role" in an election by. taking enough votes away from one of the two major parties to cost its candidate the election. Because <u>"one spoiler candidate's presence in the election draws votes from a major candidate with similar politics, thereby causing a strong opponent of both or several to win. The minor candidate causing this effect is referred to as a spoiler''.</u> Minor parties are able to play a "spoiler role" in an election by. taking enough votes away from one of the two major parties to cost a candidate the election. A minor party is a political party that plays a smaller role because it receive the smaller number of votes during at the election.

3 0
3 years ago
MC)Which of the following people or groups wanted Reconstruction policy to be the most forgiving of the former Confederate state
lara [203]
The answer to this question will be C. presidents Lincoln and Johnson


                                 hope this helps<span />
4 0
3 years ago
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Why did Europe sell Opium to the Chinese?
kobusy [5.1K]

Explanation:

Opium was first introduced to China by Turkish and Arab traders in the late 6th or early 7th century CE. Taken orally to relieve tension and pain, the drug was used in limited quantities until the 17th century. At that point, the practice of smoking tobacco spread from North America to China, and opium-smoking soon became popular throughout the country. Opium addiction increased, and opium importations grew rapidly during the first century of the Qing dynasty (1644–1911/12). By 1729 it had become such a problem that the Yongzheng emperor (ruled 1722–35) prohibited the sale and smoking of opium. That failed to hamper the trade, and in 1796 the Jiaqing emperor outlawed opium importation and cultivation. Despite such decrees, however, the opium trade continued to flourish.

Early in the 18th century, the Portuguese found that they could import opium from India and sell it in China at a considerable profit. By 1773 the British had discovered the trade, and that year they became the leading suppliers of the Chinese market. The British East India Company established a monopoly on opium cultivation in the Indian province of Bengal, where they developed a method of growing opium poppies cheaply and abundantly. Other Western countries also joined in the trade, including the United States, which dealt in Turkish as well as Indian opium.

Britain and other European countries undertook the opium trade because of their chronic trade imbalance with China. There was tremendous demand in Europe for Chinese tea, silks, and porcelain pottery, but there was correspondingly little demand in China for Europe’s manufactured goods and other trade items. Consequently, Europeans had to pay for Chinese products with gold or silver. The opium trade, which created a steady demand among Chinese addicts for opium imported by the West, solved this chronic trade imbalance.

3 0
3 years ago
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