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Sauron [17]
3 years ago
6

m and n are given positive integers. how many odd numbers can we get when we multiply k*m*n given that k is any positive one-dig

it number?
Mathematics
1 answer:
DerKrebs [107]3 years ago
5 0

Unfortunately, there isn't enough info about m and n.

If either m or n is even, then m*n is even. By extension, k*m*n is always even as well.

This is because even*even = even and even*odd = even.

Some examples:

2*3 = 6

4*8 = 32

So if either m or n (or both) are even, then k*m*n is never odd no matter what you pick for k.

-----------------------------

If both m and n are odd together, then m*n is odd

Example: 3*5 = 15

To ensure that k*m*n is odd, we need to pick odd numbers for k. If k is even, then we fall into the same scenario as the last section.

The odd single digit numbers are {1,3,5,7,9}. We see that there are 5 items in this list. So there are 5 values we can pick for k to have k*m*n be odd. Furthermore, it means there are 5 different odd numbers of the form k*m*n, with k being a single digit number.

Again, this all relies on the assumption that m and n are both odd.

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A lawn is in the shape of a right triangle with a perimeter of 215 feet. The lengths of the sides of the triangle are each multi
Whitepunk [10]

Perimeter of the new triangle is 1505 ft

Step-by-step explanation:

  • Step 1: Given the perimeter of the right triangle = 215 ft. Find new perimeter.

Perimeter of the triangle = sum of the sides = a + b + c = 215

Each side is multiplied by 7, so new sides are 7a, 7b, 7c

⇒ New perimeter = 7a + 7b + 7c = 7(a + b + c) = 7 × 215 = 1505 ft

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3 years ago
Mario travels 180 miles in 2.5 hours if Mario travels at the same re how for can Mario travel in 7.5 hours
Andreyy89

Answer: 540

Step-by-step explanation:

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8 0
4 years ago
If a distribution follows the binomial distribution with n = 40 and probability of success of 0.35, calculate the mean and varia
Anna71 [15]

Answer:

mean=14, variance=9.1

Step-by-step explanation:

for binomial distribution

n=number of outcomes

p=probability of succcess

q=probability of faliure

p+q=1

any probability given is always 'p'

mean=np

n=40

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mean=40*0.35

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variance=npq

p+q=1

q=1-p

q=1-0.35

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3 years ago
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Answer:

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8 0
3 years ago
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