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Jlenok [28]
3 years ago
5

The size of a large milkshake is 1.4 times the size of a medium milkshake. Write 1.4 as a percent. F u

Mathematics
2 answers:
jarptica [38.1K]3 years ago
8 0
1.4 as a percent is 140%
RoseWind [281]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

1.4%

Step-by-step explanation:

1.4 = \frac{14}{1000}

    =\frac{14/10}{1000/10}

    =\frac{1.4}{100}

    =1.4%

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What is the greatest integer value of y for whic 5y - 20 < 0 ?
Kruka [31]

Answer:

3

Step-by-step explanation:

Step 1: Isolate <em>y</em>

5y < 20

y < 4

When we figure out the inequality, we see that <em>y </em>has to be less than 4. Therefore, the highest integer value will have to be 3.

4 0
3 years ago
HELP!!
Alekssandra [29.7K]

Answer: a) 25x+30y=221.25\\5x+45y=191.25

b) Cost of a macadamia nut chip cookie is $33.93 and the cost of triple chocolate cookie. is $3.77

c) Elimination method because it enables us to eliminate one of the variables.


Step-by-step explanation:

Let x be the cost of macadamia nut chip cookie and y be the cost of triple chocolate cookie.

Then according to the question we have the following equations:-

25x+30y=221.25..................(1)\\5x+45y=191.25.......................(2)

Multiplying 5 on both sides of the equation (2), we get

25x+225y=956.25...............(3)

By using elimination method, subtract equation (1) from (3) we get

195y=735\\\Rightarrow\ y=3.77

Substitute the value of y in (2), we get

5x+45(3.77)=191.25\\\Rightarrow\ 5x=191.25-169.65\\\Rightarrow\ x=33.93





8 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
John says that if one side of an inequality is 0, you don't have to reverse the inequality symbol when you multiply or divide bo
Jobisdone [24]
It doesn't matter if there is 0, you still flip the inequality symbol.
-3z <span>≥ 0
z </span>≤ 0
6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
I need help on this ASAP!!!<br><br> (Feel free to explain your work! :)
AlladinOne [14]

Answer:

9/25 i think

Step-by-step explanation:

i got 9 from the tally marks, there was 9 tally marks,

and 25 is how much a quarter is

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
In the game of​ roulette, a player can place a ​$5 bet on the number 3 and have a startfraction 1 over 38 endfraction probabilit
Misha Larkins [42]
The expected value per game is -0.26.  Over 1000 games, you can expect to lose $263.16.

To find the expected value, we multiply the probability of winning by the amount of winnings, the probability of losing by the amount of loss, and adding those together.

We have a 1/38 chance of winning; 1/38(175) = $4.61.  We also have a 37/38 chance of losing; 37/38(5) = $4.87.

$4.61-$4.87 = -$0.26 (rounded)

To five decimal places, our answer is -0.26136; multiplied by 1000 games, this is $261.36 lost.
3 0
4 years ago
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